M
mikeabele
Guest
Read a little closer Ryan,More Greek? Let’s look at some more scripture with *heos *in them: in 2 Samuel 6:23, we read that Michal, the daughter of Saul, had no child “heos” the day of her death. There’s that darn Septuagint again! As for the firstborn argument, I thought I destroyed that already…
Catholic argument:
atthew 1:24-25, which reads, “When Joseph awoke, he did as the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took his wife into his home. He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus.” The word “until” seems to indicate that after the birth of Jesus there were normal marital relations. However, the Greek word heos which is translated as until, does not imply that anything happened after Jesus’ birth, nor does it exclude it. The point of the verse is that Joseph was not responsible for the conception of Jesus. Another example of the word “until” being used this way is found in Luke 1:80. In reference to John the Baptist it states, “The child grew and became strong in spirit, and he was in the desert until the day of his manifestation to Israel.” Does this mean that once he appeared publicly he left the desert? It might appear so, but we know that he was in the desert after that.
Ignored Answer:
You ignored this because it so easily defeats your interpretation of these verses. You also left out the “hou” of your “heos hou” to make your statement “seem” correct. Please actually pay attention when reading these statements I post. Don’t just persist in posting the same tired defeated argument over and over, it isn’t productive.Yes, the word “until” in Matthew 1:25 implies that Joseph knew his wife after the birth of Christ. The comparison with Luke 1:80 is misleading because the grammatical construction in different. In Luke 1:80 the Greek word heos is used alone whereas we have heos hou in Matthew 1:25.
“The Greek construction (heos hou or heos hotou) has only two major connotations in the New Testament. In a few instances it has the temporal meaning “while” (a meaning than can hardly be applied to the passage in question). The other meaning is “until,” and, without exception, implies a discontinuation of the action of the main clause. In the case of Matthew 1:25, it would mean that Joseph “had no union with [Mary] until she gave birth to a son [but then he did have union with her].”” (Swendsen E, Evangelical Answers, Reformation Press).
The bottom line for me and most of those who draw their authority from the Bible is that a plain reading of all the verses cited previously do not lead a rational person to believe that
a) the brothers mentioned are anything other than blood brothers of some sort, specifically of the same mother. If the brothers are not of the same mother as Jesus, then Mary mentioned is not really Jesus’ mother. Such is the conclusion of the whole “brothers” argument
b) That Mary had a vow of virginity, that Joseph never knew his wife in the NORMAL God-designed sense.
c) That Mary is the “ark of the covenant” or other such non-sense including Revelation 11-12.
Just a side note: Which one is Mary, the ark or the woman? They’re both mentioned within one or two verses, yet I am told that Mary is the “ark”(Rev 11) and the “woman”(Rev 12).
d) That Joseph would be defiling Mary or God by enjoying his act of marriage and bearing children of his own.
e) That Mary remained a virgin after Christ was born, the language and context actually denote just the opposite.
I am done with this topic. I want to thank everyone for their responses, some quite interesting and entertaining ones at that. I can see from the responses to my answers that only Holy Spirit working within a person can make them see the “plain” truth. I wish you all well.
God bless
Mike