As for the pain of childbirth (Revelations), I did a word study which might be helpful.
I do know that the new testament greek quotes from the greek (LXX/septuagint) in preference to the hebrew.
This is important because the author of Revalations did not quote the expression used in Genesis for the curse laid on Eve although he could have. ( There’s a little more to the argument ).
Transliterated from the greek, the two passages look like:
Gen 3:16
kai tH gunaike eipen plHthunwn plHthunw tas <> sou kai ton <> sou en <> teKH tekna …
Rev 12:2
kai en gastri exousa kai kraZei <> kai <> tekein.
The <<>> are my emphasis.
- << stenagmon >> = groaning
- << lupas >> = grief/remorse (to be sorrowful).
- <> = travail / birth contractions.
- <> = Torment / torture / pain.
All four words are used in the OT and NT. – very consistantly.
Their meaning does not appear to vary with age of the book.
NT. examples of 1 & 2 & 3 are:
Lk 14:9, 19:22, 26:37 (#2)
Jn 16:6, 16:21**, 21:17 (#2)
Rom 8:22 (#1) & (#3)
Gal 4:19 (#3)*
The word, << wdinousa >>, from Revelations, is almost exclusively a description of labor pains and by extension birth. Women are usually mentioned in association with that word.
An exhaustive search shows that there are only two usages that really show up in the bible. Labor pain of a birth, and the pain of death.
For example, it shows up as dying in:
Ps 18:5-6 <–> 2Sam 22:6,
Ps 116:3
And as a mere expression for animals giving birth in:
Job 39:1
Is 26:17-21, Is unusual, in that it uses it with both connections.
And all of this is culminated in -->Jesus himself<–, where the
word is used in acts 2:24.
( Yes, even Jesus experienced labor pains, from death itself ).
Grief is rarely used in connection to childbirth, but it is
notably used in Gen 3:16, and Jn 16:21
Since John is the traditional author of the Gospel, and revalations, it would be worth noticing that in Jn 16:21, he says a woman has
grief when her time to give birth has come, and in the passage of revelations 12, he does not use this word.
But rather that she is put to the test (torture) by the child, and that she has pangs of labor. (Neither are found in Genesis).
In my opinion, what is going on, is that Mary / the woman is not suffering the curse of Eve, which was to bear children who were as good as stillborn. They would eventually die seperated from God, and their actual sins (Cain slaying Abel) would multiply Eve’s grief/sorrow. (ahh, raising Cain…).
It is also interesting to notice that the other word used in Genesis, groaning, takes on fuller meaning with the Holy Spirit in the new testament as he prays on our behalf. So only the grief of Genesis really represents the curse.
The problem is the tendency to associate personal sin with the suffering of the woman in Revelations, but this is not necessarily the case.
In Revelations, the woman could be suffering the trial (torment) that the child brings with it. For example, see Lk 2:34-35
Which is a result of sin, but not Mary’s
personal sin.
To make this easier to see, look at Gal 4:19, the sin is not Paul’s, although Paul claims, metaphorically, to be in travail.
Suffering the pangs does not imply personal sin.
Hope that was more help than confusion.