T
Thepeug
Guest
I’m aware of the fact that, according to Church tradition, Mary never had sexual intercourse during her time on earth. How, though, does one explain the following: Matthew 1:24-25 (NSRV): “When Joseph awoke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him; he took her as his wife, but had no marital relations with her until she had borne a son; and he named him Jesus.” “Marital relations” usually refers to sexual intercourse, and “until” umplies that such relations did eventually occur after Jesus was born. Perhaps “virginity” in reference to Mary concerns more her purity of spirit than the presence of a hymen?
In Christ,
Chris
In Christ,
Chris