S
seaching20
Guest
Hello everyone,
A small bit of background on me- I am a twenty year old college student who found the Episcopal Church during my sophomore year and became very faithful. I began with the flimsy “everybody and every religion is ok” mentality and after a great deal of prayer and study began to realize that this idea has nothing to do with the Bible, Jesus, or Christianity. I found myself drawn to the Catholic church and have spoken to a priest regarding my situation. One main obstacle to conversion is that I consider myself a homosexual (or to use more catholic terms I have same-sex attractions). I never had any sort of relationship with another man nor does anyone know that I am gay. I wanted very much to find some way to justify homosexuality in Scripture but the arguments I read were extremely lacking in any sort of biblical grounding (they were certainly not grounded in tradition!). After much prayer, I submitted myself to His Will. I finally decided to commit my life to chastity and celibacy about three months ago. Celibacy was easier than chastity.
My question is this: I guess I have always instinctively known that masturbation is objectively disordered even though I habitually masturbated throughout my teenage years. I justified it because I remained celibate. Reading some arguments my understanding is that masturbation is ALWAYS objectively disordered but culpability can be diminished in certain circumstances. This seems confusing because from my perspective it seems those who diminish culpability of masturbation by saying “it’s a product of our times” open the way for many other sinful acts to be committed. If one agreed with that, couldn’t the same be said of homosexual relationships in this day an age? The acts could be objectively disordered but the sinners not held as culpable. Catholics still receive communion even if they masturbate. Priests even turn a blind eye to masturbation. If our “times” change more could this happen with homosexuality? The only difference seems to be Catholics seem to more universally agree that homosexuality is sinful now but who knows 100 years from now. My instinctive answer is no, that there is some difference between masturbation and homosexuality. What is it?
I was just wondering what people thought about this. Don’t worry, I won’t be changing my mind about the path I have chosen and this post is not the result of “second thoughts.” Even if the Church were to change her opinion, I am pretty sure it won’t happen in my lifetime. Who am I to challenge 2000 years of wisdom?
In Christ,
sarching20
A small bit of background on me- I am a twenty year old college student who found the Episcopal Church during my sophomore year and became very faithful. I began with the flimsy “everybody and every religion is ok” mentality and after a great deal of prayer and study began to realize that this idea has nothing to do with the Bible, Jesus, or Christianity. I found myself drawn to the Catholic church and have spoken to a priest regarding my situation. One main obstacle to conversion is that I consider myself a homosexual (or to use more catholic terms I have same-sex attractions). I never had any sort of relationship with another man nor does anyone know that I am gay. I wanted very much to find some way to justify homosexuality in Scripture but the arguments I read were extremely lacking in any sort of biblical grounding (they were certainly not grounded in tradition!). After much prayer, I submitted myself to His Will. I finally decided to commit my life to chastity and celibacy about three months ago. Celibacy was easier than chastity.
My question is this: I guess I have always instinctively known that masturbation is objectively disordered even though I habitually masturbated throughout my teenage years. I justified it because I remained celibate. Reading some arguments my understanding is that masturbation is ALWAYS objectively disordered but culpability can be diminished in certain circumstances. This seems confusing because from my perspective it seems those who diminish culpability of masturbation by saying “it’s a product of our times” open the way for many other sinful acts to be committed. If one agreed with that, couldn’t the same be said of homosexual relationships in this day an age? The acts could be objectively disordered but the sinners not held as culpable. Catholics still receive communion even if they masturbate. Priests even turn a blind eye to masturbation. If our “times” change more could this happen with homosexuality? The only difference seems to be Catholics seem to more universally agree that homosexuality is sinful now but who knows 100 years from now. My instinctive answer is no, that there is some difference between masturbation and homosexuality. What is it?
I was just wondering what people thought about this. Don’t worry, I won’t be changing my mind about the path I have chosen and this post is not the result of “second thoughts.” Even if the Church were to change her opinion, I am pretty sure it won’t happen in my lifetime. Who am I to challenge 2000 years of wisdom?
In Christ,
sarching20