H
Hoosier_Daddy
Guest
Ok but where is that difference expressed in Church law or theory?HoosierDaddy,
My husband says:
“There is a difference between a couple intending never to have children and a couple expecting that it will never be prudently possible for them to have children. Intention is a crucial concept in Catholic ethics, and it differs from foresight. A couple who thinks that they will have serious reasons to avoid pregnancy for all of their married lives is foreseeing that they (probably) won’t have children, but they aren’t necessarily intending not to have children. And they can be quite open to trying to have children on the condition that it is ceases to be imprudent to do so–say, because of a medical advance. And no one should be open to trying to have children except on the condition that it is not imprudent to do so, since prudence is a virtue and to act against a virtue is wrong.”
The impediment to marriage seems to directly contradict that.
honestly I think the reason this issue touches me so deeply is because really at it’s heart it is about marriage and it’s definitions and purposes. Something that is absolutely the single biggest issue facing the Church today. From contraception, to gay “marriage” to divorce and remarriage all the issues touch on the very definition and nature of marriage and the Sacrament thereof. We live in a word where we struggle to verbalize that a marriage is between the opposite sex! We either have not defined it well enough or are prevented from getting the message out there.
This is why this issue is really really important.
here we have a definition of Marriage that the Church says that if you are opposed to having children you cannot get married. a couple must also be able to preform the act. And I know we were supposed to leave it out but even in a Josephite marriage if just ONE partner decides they do not want to continue, it the other must oblige.
The Church says the opposite of maternal age in and of itself being a SOLE reason to avoid. Because the Church, marries people at all ages that are premenopausal and menopausal, with the express intent to not refuse children. Which is what one would be doing for a couple of years if one had the SOLE reason to avoid.
This though off topic ( and probably belongs on that other thread was interesting.Physical capacity for consummation lacking.[14] Per Canon 1084 §3 “Without prejudice to the provisions of Canon 1098, sterility neither forbids nor invalidates a marriage.” Both parties, however, must be physically capable of completed vaginal intercourse, wherein the man ejaculates “true semen” into the woman’s vagina. (See [2] for details.) To invalidate a marriage, the impotence must be perpetual (i.e., incurable) and antecedent to the marriage. The impotence can either be absolute or relative. This impediment is generally considered to derive from divine natural law, and so cannot be dispensed.[15] The reason behind this impediment is explained in the Summa Theologica:[16] “In marriage there is a contract whereby one is bound to pay the other the marital debt: wherefore just as in other contracts, the bond is unfitting if a person bind himself to what he cannot give or do, so the marriage contract is unfitting, if it be made by one who cannot pay the marital debt.”
True Semen.
Does this mean a man who has had a vasectomy cannot get married> I thought they could?