M
Maureen1125
Guest
Thistle…
2nd - the OP is only questioning a statement in the Gospel that implies that Mary and Joseph had relations, not that Mary had other children. It is quite possible that the Lord made her barren after the Birth of Jesus.
I accept the Churches teachings that Mary remained Virginal throughout her life, but the OP does bring up a vaild question.
Okay - 2 things…1st - If Joseph swore to protect the Virgin Mary, why would he have sought to divorce her - before they were even married - after he discovered she was with child? Seems to me like that if Joseph was aware of the plan from the beginning he would have sought a divorce, stopping only after the Lord assured him that the child was the long awaited Savior.According to the Protoevangelium, Joseph was required to regard Mary’s vow of virginity with the utmost respect. The gravity of his responsibility as the guardian of a virgin was indicated by the fact that, when she was discovered to be with child, he had to answer to the Temple authorities, who thought him guilty of defiling a virgin of the Lord. Mary was also accused of having forsaken the Lord by breaking her vow. Keeping this in mind, it is an incredible** insult to the Blessed Virgin to say that she broke her vow by bearing children other than her Lord and God, who was conceived through the power of the Holy Spirit**.
2nd - the OP is only questioning a statement in the Gospel that implies that Mary and Joseph had relations, not that Mary had other children. It is quite possible that the Lord made her barren after the Birth of Jesus.
I accept the Churches teachings that Mary remained Virginal throughout her life, but the OP does bring up a vaild question.