Meaning of a couple of verses in the bible

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My family is LDS and this weekend they invited me to the open house of the new Draper temple.

While there, they referenced 2 verses in the bible that they use to explain certain practices.

Matthew 16:19- they use this in the “Sealing Room” as an explanation for “Eternal Marriage and Families”. I know that it is stated in several verses that there is no marriage in heaven. What is the true meaning of this verse??

Corrinthians 19:25- this one is used for the “Baptism for the Dead”. What is the true meaning of this verse??

VERY Confused about these two issues.
Please HELP

Thank You in Advance

:confused: :confused: :confused: :confused:
 
My family is LDS and this weekend they invited me to the open house of the new Draper temple.

While there, they referenced 2 verses in the bible that they use to explain certain practices.

Matthew 16:19- they use this in the “Sealing Room” as an explanation for “Eternal Marriage and Families”. I know that it is stated in several verses that there is no marriage in heaven. What is the true meaning of this verse??

Corrinthians 19:25- this one is used for the “Baptism for the Dead”. What is the true meaning of this verse??
Matthew 16:19 - “And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.” (Douay-Rheims version)

This verse has nothing to do with family but everything to do with the church. In verse 18 right before it, Jesus told Peter that He would build His church on Peter as the rock. Catholics know from this verse that Jesus founded His visible church on earth and appointed Peter her leader. In verse 19, Jesus gives Peter, as head of His church, His authority on earth and specifically mentions the authority to forgive and retain sins, as told in the “binding” and “loosing”. Jesus is establishing an authoritative church in this verse. In using the keys, Jesus is not just giving the authority to Peter but is establishing an office which contains the authority; an office which Peter was the first to hold.

For more on this authority being tied to an office (the authority endures through many different people holding the office and is transferred by the transfer of the office) versus a single person (the authority would die with the death of that person), see how the keys are used to transfer authority in Isiah 22.

I believe 1st Corinthians and 2nd Corinthians have only 16 and 13 books in them, respectively, so I am not sure what you are referring to with Corinthians 19:25. Let me know if I’m missing something.
 
You are correct…I’m sorry, I guess it was a little early…
1Cor 15:29 is the verse.

"Otherwise, what will people accomplish by having themselves baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, then why are they having themselves baptized for them?

:rolleyes: :o
 
You are correct…I’m sorry, I guess it was a little early…
1Cor 15:29 is the verse.

"Otherwise, what will people accomplish by having themselves baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, then why are they having themselves baptized for them?

:rolleyes: :o
No problem at all. Here is what the footnote in the Douay-Rheims Bible says about this verse:

“That are baptized for the dead”… Some think the apostle here alludes to a ceremony then in use; but others, more probably, to the prayers and penitential labours, performed by the primitive Christians for the souls of the faithful departed; or to the baptism of afflictions and sufferings undergone for sinners spiritually dead.

From the footnote, it seems there are two possibilities for the meaning of this passage: it either refers to a heretical practice in place (by a people whom Paul had already scolded for many other things), or the term ‘baptism’ seems to be a collector for prayers and offerings for those who have died. This is much like praying for those in purgatory. The departed’s final destination cannot be changed (heaven for those in heaven and purgatory, hell for those in hell), but prayers and offerings of one’s sufferings can help those in purgatory get to heaven quicker.

In contrast, Mormons interpret this passage to mean that people can be baptized and saved after they have already died, using a living proxy on earth to receive the waters of baptism. This is very unlike praying for souls in purgatory because it proposes that baptism of the dead can be used to join people to Christ after death by rerouting their eternal destination. Scripture is clear that if one is not joined to Christ before death, they will not be joined to Him after death. In addition, Catholic Answers has a pretty good article on why the Mormon interpretation isn’t supported by Scripture, complete with Imprimatur and Nihil Obstat:

catholic.com/library/mormonism_baptism_for_the_dead.asp

I’m not as familiar with this passage as with that from Matthew, but the article seemed pretty good. I’ve learned some things from your question also, so thanks for that opportunity.
 
From the Haydock Bible Commentary

Matthew 16:19
Ver. 19. And I will give to thee the keys, &c. This is another metaphor, expressing the supreme power and prerogative of the prince of the apostles. The keys of a city, or of its gates, are presented or given to the person that hath the chief power. We also own a power of the keys, given to the other apostles, but with a subordination to St. Peter and to his successor, as head of the Catholic Church. — And whatsoever thou shalt bind, &c. All the apostles, and their successors, partake also of this power of binding and loosing, but with a due subordination to one head invested with the supreme power. (Witham) — Loose on earth. The loosing the bands of temporal punishments due to sins, is called an indulgence: the power of which is here granted. (Challoner) — Although Peter and his successors are mortal, they are nevertheless endowed with heavenly power, says St. Chrysostom, nor is the sentence of life and death passed by Peter to be attempted to be reversed, but what he declares is to be considered a divine answer from heaven, and what he decrees, a decree of God himself. He that heareth you, heareth me, &c. The power of binding is exercised, 1st. by refusing to absolve; 2nd. by enjoining penance for sins forgiven; 3nd. by excommunication, suspension or interdict; 4th. by making rules and laws for the government of the Church; 5th. by determining what is of faith by the judgments and definitions of the Church. (Tirinus) — The terms binding and loosing, are equivalent to opening and shutting, because formerly the Jews opened the fastenings of their doors by untying it, and they shut or secured their doors by tying or binding it. (Bible de Vence) — Dr. Whitby, a learned Protestant divine, thus expounds this and the preceding verse: “As a suitable return to thy confession, I say also to thee, that thou art by name Peter, i.e. a rock; and upon thee, who art this rock, I will build my Church, and I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven, the power of making laws to govern my Church.” (Tom. i, p. 143.) Dr. Hammond, another Protestant divine, explains it in the same manner. And p. 92, he says: " What is here meant by the keys, is best understand by Isaias xxii. 22, where they signify ruling the whole family or house of the king: and this being by Christ accommodated to the Church, denotes the power of governing it."

1 Corinthians 15:29
Ver. 29. Who are baptized for the dead.[1] He still brings other proofs of the resurrection. This is a hard place, and the words are differently expounded. 1. Several late interpreters understand a metaphorical baptism, and that to be baptized for the dead, is to undertake self-denials, mortifications, and works of penance, in hopes of a happy resurrection; and this exposition agrees with what follows, of being exposed to dangers every hour, of dying daily, &c. But if this had been the apostle’s meaning, he would rather have said, Who baptize themselves. Besides, this exposition is not so much as mentioned in any of the ancient interpreters. 2. Some think that St. Paul tells the Corinthians that they ought not to question the resurrection of the dead, who had a custom among them, if any one died without baptism, to baptize another that was living for him; and this they did, fancying that such a baptism would be profitable to the dead person, in order to a happy resurrection. Tertullian mentions this custom in one or two places, and also St. Chrysostom on this place. But it does not seem probable that St. Paul would bring any argument of the resurrection from a custom which he himself could not approve, nor was ever approved in the Church. 3. St. Chrysostom and the Greek interpreters, who generally follow him, expound these words, who are baptized for the dead, as if it were the same as to say, who receive baptism with hopes that they themselves, and all the dead, will rise again; and therefore make a profession, when they are baptized, that they believe the resurrection. So that St. Paul here brings this proof among others, that they who have been made Christians, and continue Christians, cannot call in question the resurrection, which they professed to believe in their creed at their baptism, the creed being always repeated before they were baptized. 4. Others, by being baptized for the dead, understand those who begged and called for baptism when they were in danger of death, and would by no means go out of this world without being baptized, hoping thereby to have a happy resurrection of their bodies; so that to be baptized for the dead is the same as on the account of the state of the dead, which they were entering into. See St. Epiphanius, hær. viii. p. 114. Edit Petavii. (Witham) Some think the apostle here alludes to a ceremony then in use: but others, more probably, to the prayers and penitential labours performed by the primitive Christians for the souls of the faithful departed: or to the baptism of afflictions and sufferings undergone for sinners spiritually dead. (Challoner)
 
The verse is Mt 16:19 is addressed to the 2nd person singular that is only to Peter. Anyone claiming that power must get it from Peter somehow. I know of no way that any Mormon can claim to have gotten that power as it is only passed along with the Papal office.
 
My family is LDS and this weekend they invited me to the open house of the new Draper temple.

While there, they referenced 2 verses in the bible that they use to explain certain practices.

Matthew 16:19- they use this in the “Sealing Room” as an explanation for “Eternal Marriage and Families”. I know that it is stated in several verses that there is no marriage in heaven. What is the true meaning of this verse??

Corrinthians 19:25- this one is used for the “Baptism for the Dead”. What is the true meaning of this verse??

VERY Confused about these two issues.
Please HELP

Thank You in Advance

:confused: :confused: :confused: :confused:
Welcome! I would hope that the answers given have helped you. I can add perhaps only a little more to them. As you can see, if the bible is interpreted apart from the Church, many errors can occur. In Matthew 16, Jesus gave the apostles unique authority and the power of the Holy Spirit to guide them into all truth. This also applies to their chosen successors, who determined the contents of the bible in later Church councils. The LDS accepts the Church authority which canonized the bible, but then rejects all other church authority. This is where they went off track.

In the same Matthew 16, where the LDS seems to believe that marriage lasts forever, they also disagree with the Church lasting until the end of time - even though Jesus explicitly says so. They cannot have it both ways - either they reject all Church authority (and the bible), or they accept all of it. But, to accept all Church authority means that they must then be Catholic in order to follow Christ in His fulness.

As to “eternal marriage”, please see what our Lord said here:

Matthew 22:30 “At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.”

Mark 12:25 “When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.”

Jesus said this in answer to an explicit question from the Sadducees regarding the nature of marriage. It is quite clear from Jesus’ own words that marriage is binding only in this life.

The LDS is based entirely, 100%, on an allegation that Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:18 were not actually true and that the gates of Hades did indeed prevail against His Church. This, to Catholics, is nonsense.

Many, many other groups of Christians also claim to be “restoration” churches. But, as with the witnesses against Jesus before the Sandehrin, their testimony does not agree. The Church you are now in is the only Church (aside from Eastern Orthodox) which can trace its roots directly back to Christ. Each Catholic Priest can trace his ordination clear back to one of the Apostles. The LDS has nothing remotely similar, having suddenly popped up in 1800s America.

Christ’s peace be with you.
 
My family is LDS and this weekend they invited me to the open house of the new Draper temple.

While there, they referenced 2 verses in the bible that they use to explain certain practices.

Matthew 16:19- they use this in the “Sealing Room” as an explanation for “Eternal Marriage and Families”. I know that it is stated in several verses that there is no marriage in heaven. What is the true meaning of this verse??

Corrinthians 19:25- this one is used for the “Baptism for the Dead”. What is the true meaning of this verse??

VERY Confused about these two issues.
Please HELP

Thank You in Advance

:confused: :confused: :confused: :confused:
meems,
Mormons have their own bible. It isn’t chriatian. in fact, Mormons are not christian.
Please do some research on what they teach before you think about becoming a member. The most important item , ‘who is Jesus Christ?’

praying for you,
bluelake
 
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