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adf417
Guest
Because that is not the purpose of the bible like many people NEED to believe. If it were the purpose then either Jesus would have wrote it himself or the writings would not have taken 20 years to begin and another 50 years to complete. Jesus left us a church, the pillar and foundation of truth to guide those who are seeking truth and salvation. It is still up to each individual to accept Christ on his/her own free will. God doesn’t want us to formulate our relationship with Him like the pathagorean theorem and use it because it might make sense. That is why we say “he wants us to have that personal relationship”.adf417:![]()
The question is the divinity of Jesus and whether or not it is mentioned in the Bible. That is the topic under discussion. There are those who say yes, and there are those who say no. OTOH, there is no one who says that the base angles of an isosceles triangle are not equal. Why is that. It is because some people see ambiguity in the Bible, whereas there are subjects in which there is no ambiguity. So as regards the divinity of Jesus, why is the Bible not crystal clear on the subject so as to prevent any misunderstanding or disagreement among those reading and studying Holy Scripture?which still has nothing to do with faith or this thread.
Peace!!!