MERGED: Apologetics on Homosexuality: 75 Qs and As/Defending the Church's Stance on Homosexuality

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I’m not irreligious, but I I view homosexuality as completely natural and moral. Come at me with your best shot.😃
What do you think of Jesus’ response to the Pharisees concerning the issue of divorce?:
“Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female’ and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are not longer two, but one flesh…Some are incapable of marriage because they were born so…” -Matthew 19:4-6,12 (emphasis added)
From my perspective, Jesus is clearly expressing his understanding of marriage and human sexuality here. And it is definitely heterosexual.
 
You really put yourself on the firing line, didn’t you? Well, I’m not one of your executioners. In fact I agree with you that there are plenty of people who are religious (or, let’s say, religious-minded, not atheists) who are not critical of homosexuals or homosexual behavior from a moral or natural perspective. Perhaps not on this forum, however.
Considering we are both not Catholics and member’s of highly liberal religions.😉
 
What do you think of Jesus’ response to the Pharisees concerning the issue of divorce?:

From my perspective, Jesus is clearly expressing his understanding of marriage and human sexuality here. And it is definitely heterosexual.
Yes Jesus did say some people are incapable of marriage because they were born so. But was he talking about homosexuality? No. Two men and two women can also become one flesh.
 
Lynx, it may be the case that homosexuality really is genetic, but I hope you do not think that those articles are conclusive or even a correct and/or accurate presentation of the data. Very recently, there was a study done on mice that show that different hormones affected their sexuality as well, suggesting a chemical influence. At the very least, I would not go around posting that homosexuality is genetic just yet.
I think homosexuality is a mix of natural (genetic) and environmental (upbringing) sources. At the very least, it’s been proven, quite clearly, there are genes that influence sexuality in some animals. Is there a homosexuality gene in people? If so, does that exert more influence than your moral upbringing?
 
They may try and appeal to animals which they claim are homosexual. You can argue this point if you wish (but you will need to do some research) or you can ask why we look to animals for justification on how to behave. Last time I checked, animals do not ask for consent when they have sex, does this mean humans do not need consent.
Yes, this is a pathetic and foolish argument they love to use. Yes, some animals do have behavior that can be considered homosexual,but so what! rape, incest, war, torture, suicide, cannibalism, infanticide, …etc are also observed in the animal kingdom, even among high mammals, does that mean all these behaviors should be acceptable since animals do them? No. The gay animal argument is just stupid.

(see previous discussion on this topic forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=396347 )
 
You haven’t found anything except speculation and ‘self-edited’ opinion.
No, that’s clearly not what’s shown. Why do you think this is opinion and not research supported evidence towards a gay gene in animals?
Whom, and you’ve just proven my point. What or who is the ultimate judge of what ‘is’ and why? Who chooses right and wrong and how do we know what is ‘correct’ and what is not?
Indeed. Keep this in consideration when you’re trying to convince a person that homosexuality is wrong. It’s much more difficult with a non-believer.
and right here you inject your PERSONAL opinion, not fact. And what do you mean by pleasure?
Give me an example, contradicting what I posted. Pleasure: a feeling of happy satisfaction and enjoyment
and obviously you and I differ on what makes it moral/immoral. So which of us is correct if we have absolutely contrary opinions?
It’s subjective (oh noes, here come the moral relativist speeches) because there is no reigning moral authority. I have my morality, and you have yours. Logically, we are both right and wrong, assuming we disagree. Assuming you agree with me that homosexuality is moral, I would be right, and you would probably be wrong. The bible is pretty clear about homosexual acts being sinful.
 
Yes Jesus did say some people are incapable of marriage because they were born so. But was he talking about homosexuality? No. Two men and two women can also become one flesh.
Regardless of the incapability for marriage statement, Jesus was clearly endorsing the view that humans were created male and female, and that a man is meant to be joined to a woman in marriage. Two people of the same sex cannot become one flesh, anymore than my putting my hand in someone’s mouth makes me one flesh with that person. Only the male-female relationship is ordered towards the two becoming one flesh in intercourse and conception (regardless of whether conception actually occurs).
 
You sure about that?
Yes 😦
Code:
You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination. (NKJ, Leviticus 18:22)
Code:
If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination. They shall surely be put to death. Their blood shall be upon them. (NKJ, Leviticus 20:13)
Put these into a context not anti-homosexual acts.
 
Yes 😦

Put these into a context not anti-homosexual acts.
The rules set forth in chapters 18 and 20 are meant to prevent the Israelites from doing what the Egyptians and Canaanites did. Now the Canaanite religions had something called sex rituals. This is what was going on in Canaan and Egypt at the time the Levitical rules were announced — homosexual temple prostitution. The Bible wasn’t prohibiting homosexuality it was prohibiting a pagan sex ritual which were part of the Canaanites religions.

Some people may object, saying, “But if you ignore the context and just read the words of Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 in black and white, they appear to prohibit all sex between men, not just sex in pagan rituals.” But that is the whole point: The meaning of words depends on context. Remember, the words of 1 Corinthians 11 also appear to require long hair and head coverings for all women in all circumstances. But, because we have studied the context, we know that is not what was meant. A text taken out of context is pretext. Let’s apply the same common-sense rule here.
 
Already addressed that in previous post.

Arsenokoitēs could mean a number of things.

.
Can you give one reference to when ἀρσενοκοῖται does not mean homosexual? The word is literally “male sex”
Quote:
romans 1:27
Nothing to do with homosexuality.
" and the males likewise gave up natural relations with females and burned with lust for one another. Males did shameful things with males and thus received in their own persons the due penalty for their perversity."-Romans 1:27

How is this NOT about homosexuality??
Quote:
1 timothy 1:10
Nothing to do with homosexuality.
It uses the same word 1 Corinthians 6:9 does for homosexual.
Quote:
jude 1:7
Sodom and Gomorrah were not destroyed because of homosexuality.
Perhaps, not JUST! It was one of several strikes against them, the men wanting to rape the (male) angels (even when offered girls instead) was the last straw
 
I’m not irreligious, but I I view homosexuality as completely natural and moral. Come at me with your best shot.😃
I can understand how come homosexuality is considered natural since one’s anatomy is not imported from Mars. But I have no clue what you mean by moral. Is it some kind of garden variety of “goody goody two shoes” which fades with the falling leaves?
 
How can I better defend the Church’s stance on Homosexuality, especially against the irreligious? Time and again I’ve heard that homosexuality is natural, just as happy for the people as heterosexuality, etc… How should I respond to these?
I too agree to have them “back up” their reasons why it is natural. In Romans Chapter 2:26-27 St. Paul even mentions homosexuality as unnatural. “…God handed them over to degrading passions. Females exchanged natural relations for unnatural, and males…did shameful things with males and thus recieved in their own persons the due penalty for their perversion”

I mean if Paul mentioned here then it would be for a reason. Apparently, homosexuality has been around during AND after the time of Christ. They must learn to be celibate and devote their life in serving God.
 
Can you give one reference to when ἀρσενοκοῖται does not mean homosexual? The word is literally “male sex”

" and the males likewise gave up natural relations with females and burned with lust for one another. Males did shameful things with males and thus received in their own persons the due penalty for their perversity."-Romans 1:27

How is this NOT about homosexuality??

It uses the same word 1 Corinthians 6:9 does for homosexual.

Perhaps, not JUST! It was one of several strikes against them, the men wanting to rape the (male) angels (even when offered girls instead) was the last straw
Its Chapter 2 not Chapter 1…Just FYI…I have the bible next to me. 😃
 
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anrmenchaca47:
Yes which would constitute the reason why Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed
 
Doesn’t it seem kind of strange that if the Scriptures were ONLY referring to ‘temple prostitution’ and not to those ‘commited homosexual relationships’ postulated as ‘normal’ in society in the last 2000 years of Christendom, that we don’t have all sorts of teachings to ‘support’ it?

I mean, it’s not as though the Church Fathers and theologians throughout the ages haven’t discussed even the tinest pieces of theology, so where is the consistent Christian teaching of not only AD 1900 something, but AD 1500 something, AD 1000 something, AD 500 something, etc. which supports that it was ‘lack of hospitality’ that was the ‘sin of Sodom’ and that committed homosexual relationships should be marriages too?

Where is the ‘development of doctrine’ which proves that homosexuality was never condemned per se (only ‘temple prostitution’), therefore it is as acceptable as heterosexuality?
 
The difficulty is that each side will not accept the validity of the other side’s arguments.

A gay person is who is Catholic (or of many other faiths) will either be (1) celibate, or (2) closeted and sinful. A gay person who is not of those faiths will either be (1) irreligious, or (2) of a faith which does not condemn homosexuality.

I think it is unlikely that anyone can “win” this argument, or convince someone on the “other side” of much.

I prefer to simply state my point of view, and move on, if the subject comes up.
 
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