P
pablope
Guest
Richard…the Scripture cannot contradict itself, you know this already…otherwise, why would it be the Word of God inerrant? To you, they contradict because you are trying to explain it away with a punctuation. As I stated previously, if your belief or explanation is based on a punctuation, something is not right, you are standing on quicksand, no firm foundation.Ok, pablope let’s go through this again. Luke 23:43 says “And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise.” The traditional interpretation of this v. is that Jesus would be in heaven with the thief ON THAT VERY DAY. Ok, Jump ahead to a little after the resurrection THREE DAYS LATER Jn. 20: 17Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
Both of these statements cannot be true. This is not my interpretation. This is what the bible says. Jesus says in Jn. 20:17 that He had not yet ascended to the Father three days after He supposedly said that He would be with the Thief in heaven. The only possible explaination is that the punctuation in Luke 23:43 is in the wrong place. If we move the punctuation, what do we get? Jn.20:17And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee Today, shalt thou be with me in paradise. Jesus is saying to this thief that you see me today in a degraded, humiliating, shameful manner. But one day, after I return to get you, you will be with me in paradise.
Before going to your main question, why would Jesus body degrade, be in a shameful, humiliating manner? Would God the Father allow that to happen to his Son’s body?
Now, to your question, where did the Good Thief go? Again put it in context first. Paradise, to the Jews, meant Abraham’s Bosom, where the righteous were after their earthly death. As Jesus promised the good thief, Jesus took him to this Paradise, where Abraham, Moses, Elijah and the other Old Testament righteous and saints were. At the opening of Heaven, the good thief and the OT righteous, then went to Heaven. And who else is in Heaven? God the Father…and since God/Son/Holy Spirit are all one, and are omnipresent, so the good thief was with the God/Son/HS…even though Jesus was still here, to finish instructing the Apostles prior to his Ascension.
So, John 20:17 and Luke 23:43 do not contradict, and the comma is in the right place.
Here is something for you to reflect on (I forgot the link to this):
*Christ’s reply
Christ’s reply begins with the word “amen” (verily). Whenever this construction is chosen in the New Testament, it indicates that something emphatic is to follow.
For example, in Matthew 5:18, Christ said: “Amen I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no way pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.” This construction enables Jesus to move to the diametrically opposite position. His audience had thought that he was doing away with the law. According to their thought, Christ’s new statement would be false. For that reason, he began with the assuring tone of “amen” (verily). Christ’s intent was to surprise his audience —- just as we might do today by saying something like, “You may find this difficult to believe, but it is true, nevertheless.”
Thus the word “amen” (verily) at the beginning of the first phrase (Verily I say unto you) announces that a surprising truth is about to be revealed, while the word “today,” at the start of the next phrase (today you will be…), is the unexpected, complementary emphasis —- the truth Christ had promised. In effect, Christ was saying, “It is not at all a case of my remembering you or that you need to wait for some future time! You will be with me, as of today.”
The reading “Verily I say unto you today” not only contains a redundancy (“I say” is in the present tense already —- making “today” redundant), it destroys the natural force of these words.
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