Hi Amoon. I know you didn’t ask me specifically but here’s something you may mind helpful.
Your confusion is nothing new. But you must read the Bible in the proper context. Besides the Jews knew EXACTLY what Jesus meant.
Jesus always spoke of one who was with authority. The Jews already got the point that people (their own) were starting to follow because Jesus they realized he was the one the Prophets spoke about, someone directly from God Himself who will set things right and God will always keep his promises.
Some Bible verses you can have a look at:
And the Lord God (Greek. ho kurios ho theos, the Lord the God) of the spirits of the prophets sent his angel to show his servants the things which must be done shortly" (Rev. 22:6).
So who is the Lord God who sent “his angel” in this verse? Also look at verse 22:16, *** which is 10 verses later***, reveals to us who “the Lord God” is who has "sent his angel: " I** Jesus have sent my angel, to testify to you these things in the churches**. Thus Jesus is clearly -
the Lord God of the spirits of the prophets!
In Luke 12:8-9, angels are called “angels of God”; in Matthew 13:41, angels are called “[Jesus’] angels.” Jesus and God are synonymous. Jesus does what only God can do.
He forgives sins by his own authority ( in the OT at Isaiah 43:25; even Mark 2:5-9). He judges the world in Matthew 25:31-46. Also see Genesis 18:25 and Joel 3:12 (OT)
Jesus refers to himself with the divine name—I am —in several places. This “I am” formula is a reference back to the Divine Name revealed to Moses in Ex. 3:14 (OT).
Jesus refer to himself as “
I am” four times in John’s Gospel (pls see John 8:24; 58; 13:19 and 18:5-6), but when he does so in John 8:58, the Jews to whom he was speaking understood his meaning because they immediately wanted to stone him for
blasphemy! ( See my first sentence)
Jesus places his word on the same level as the word of God—the Old Testament. “You have heard it said . . . but I say to you . . .” (see Matt. 5:21-28). Look at the OT, in contrast to the prophets of old who always made clear the word they were speaking was not their own: "The word of the Lord came unto me, saying . . . " (pls see in OT Jer. 1:11; Ezek. 1:3, etc.). Thus** Only God possesses this kind of authority**.
Jesus is referred to as “equal” In John 5:18, the author comments on why the Jews wanted to kill Jesus: “
Because he called God his Father, making himself equal with God.”
Paul refers to Jesus when he was “in the form (Gk. morphe; in Greek usage this word means the set of characteristics that makes a thing what it is) of God” thinking “his equality with God” **not something to be grasped onto, but emptying himself and becoming man **( Pls see Phil. 2:6-10
- Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7But emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men, and in habit found as a man.
8He humbled himself, becoming obedient unto death, even to the death of the cross.
9For which cause God also hath exalted him, and hath given him a name which is above all names:
10That in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those that are in heaven, on earth, and under the earth.
Thus In proper context Paul assumes his readers already knew Jesus to be equal with God, the Father.
Jesus calls himself “the Lord of the Sabbath” in Mark 2:28. The Sabbath is referred to as the “Sabbath of Yahweh” in the Old Testament ( see in the OT in Ex. 20:10; see also Isaiah. 8:13, referred to in 1 Peter 3:15; and Joel 2:31-32, both quoted in Acts 2:20-21 and in Rom. 10:13).
In Revelation 22:6, 13, 16, we find Jesus revealing himself to be “
the Alpha and the Omega . . . the beginning and the end”.
Peace.
MJ