G
Gilbert_Keith
Guest
John Doran
and i’ll say it again, too: the natural law, written on the hearts of men by god, and available by the light of natural reason.
anatheist and i have said the same thing numerous different times on this thread, but to no avail.
AnAtheist never said* the natural law, written on the hearts of men by god …*
O.K. John. The natural law exists. The Catholic Church teaches the same thing. Right?
But how do you account for the fact that in atheist Russia the natural law produced no visible effect, while in America the dominance of the Christian faith has produced a society nowhere near so horrendous as 20 million slaughtered?
And how do you account for the fact that Russia finally gave up its official atheism if the natural law was sufficient glue to keep men from each other’s throats.
And John, it was because the natural law was not sufficient that Christ and the prophets came into the world to remove the blinders we had placed over the natural law so that we could not see it.
Do you agree with this, or do you agree with AnAtheist that the natural law (Kant’s version of the Golden Rule) is entirely sufficient to produce a well regulated society.
And if it was sufficient, why does Kant refer to the Bible as the greatest benefit the human race has ever experienced?
I guess we are both sounding like broken records at this point. But what does it take to get through … and why do you never answer the question.
Where do you find the moral glue? You expect everyone to read Kant and submit to the law. I’ll give you a hundred dollars for everyone who can even understand Kant!
Everyone understands Jesus. Nor was he concerned to place obscure phrases in the way of their understanding.
and i’ll say it again, too: the natural law, written on the hearts of men by god, and available by the light of natural reason.
anatheist and i have said the same thing numerous different times on this thread, but to no avail.
AnAtheist never said* the natural law, written on the hearts of men by god …*
O.K. John. The natural law exists. The Catholic Church teaches the same thing. Right?
But how do you account for the fact that in atheist Russia the natural law produced no visible effect, while in America the dominance of the Christian faith has produced a society nowhere near so horrendous as 20 million slaughtered?
And how do you account for the fact that Russia finally gave up its official atheism if the natural law was sufficient glue to keep men from each other’s throats.
And John, it was because the natural law was not sufficient that Christ and the prophets came into the world to remove the blinders we had placed over the natural law so that we could not see it.
Do you agree with this, or do you agree with AnAtheist that the natural law (Kant’s version of the Golden Rule) is entirely sufficient to produce a well regulated society.
And if it was sufficient, why does Kant refer to the Bible as the greatest benefit the human race has ever experienced?
I guess we are both sounding like broken records at this point. But what does it take to get through … and why do you never answer the question.
Where do you find the moral glue? You expect everyone to read Kant and submit to the law. I’ll give you a hundred dollars for everyone who can even understand Kant!
Everyone understands Jesus. Nor was he concerned to place obscure phrases in the way of their understanding.