N
NewSeeker
Guest
It’s reasonable to conclude there was no extensive editing since there is no evidence of such editing. That is the consistent view of Christians for nearly two millenia. The Mormons come along very late in the game and claim and Apostasy and editing occurred. Contrary to your view, I am not required to provide evidence that no editing occurred as no amount of evidence - in principle - can be gathered to prove a negative. In fact, I carefully posed my hypothesis in positive form and noted the remarkable consistency in the manuscripts across time and space. Turning it around and pretending that the Catholic view is based on an assumption posed in negative form is just a Mormon dodge used to excuse them from the requirement to defend their claims about the Apostasy. Sorry, but the burden of proof is always on those who make positive claims and is therefore on you. But I do understand why you would want to argue that there is no evidence that editing did not occur. Such unfalsifiable negative hypotheses are the only defense Mormons have - apart from the warm fuzzies in their bosoms.I don’t, my friend. On the other hand, I do know you don’t know whether or not it was handed down directly. In other words, we can assume nothing. We don’t know if it was altered, or if it wasn’t.
And yes, the burden of proof is on the person making the assumption. But we both made assumptions, believe it or not. I made the assumption that there was editing. You made the assumption there wasn’t. And yes, you are required to supply evidence just as much as I - the default theory is not accepted by default so to say. The truth is, the most we can really say is we don’t know.
