I think that this is only problematic for those that believe that public revelation ended with the appearance of Christ. Since Catholics believe that public revelation ended with the death of the last Apostle, this is not an issue. So I think I agree with you that, if they are presented as proof of no more revelation, it doesn’t work. When people say that public revelation ended with Jesus Christ, they need to be specific as to what they mean, especially if Hebrews 1:1-2 is being used.
Not necessarily, since my reason for referencing it was simply to point out what it clearly says: that in the past, God spoke in parts through the prophets, and in these last days, He has spoken in full through Jesus Christ. The question is, what does that mean?
Could you please explain why it counts? I have heard much speculation that the Proclamation may be added to the D&C. Is it seen as “new” information? It really seems to be a statement of faith on things that LDS have believed for quite some time. I could be wrong, please explain the context of the Proclamation as it relates to public revelation. How do you know that GBH was speaking as a prophet when this came out, and since it hasn’t been declared canonized scripture, are there any other examples of President Hinckley receiving public revelation that is canonized scripture? What about Ezra Taft Benson and Howard Hunter? Did they receive public revelation that became canonized scripture? How does this relate to them being sustained as “prophets, seers, and revelators”? Indeed, there are 15 “prophets, seers, and revelators” in the LDS church, right?
Related question: If only the President is entitled to receive revelation for the entire church, who do the members of the Quorum of the Twelve receive revelation for? The president is the prophet for the entire church, who are the Twelve (and the rest of the First Presidency) prophets, seers, and revelators for?
True