Mormons: What are the consquences of Original Sin?

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Wow, there is something you said here that is very telling. “…including accepting that sin is part of what we need…” We never need sin. And the reason “we are not going to be perfect” is due to the fact that we suffer from the consequences of original sin and are subject to concupiscence. God did not give us sin to teach us a lesson. We have made our own bed. Christ came to save us from the consequences of our sin which came about through the sin of our first parents.
I have to take ParkerD’s defense on this one, the full thought is “need to be willing to acknowledge will happen”. we need to acknowledge that sin will happen is what he says, though you have done a good job applying the same technique he used to interpret that reference to interpreting his words.
 
Wow, there is something you said here that is very telling. “…including accepting that sin is part of what we need…” We never need sin. And the reason “we are not going to be perfect” is due to the fact that we suffer from the consequences of original sin and are subject to concupiscence. God did not give us sin to teach us a lesson. We have made our own bed. Christ came to save us from the consequences of our sin which came about through the sin of our first parents.
SteveVH,

It ought to be clear to anyone that I can’t help you understand what I was saying if you take half of a sentence and consider that you have the whole meaning from the sentence. I realize that it served your purpose to do so, but evidently the concept that “all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God” (Romans 3:23) does not bear well with your theological premise. It is, however, exactly what I was saying but had put into words that accepted that scripture and taught the concept.

Peace and good day to you.
 


The sentence says, “He remaineth.” “He” is the subject, and “Remaineth” is the verb. What modifies the verb’s application can’t modify the subject.

“But remember that he that persists in his own carnal nature, and goes on in the ways of sin and rebellion against God, remaineth in his fallen state and the devil hath all power over him.”
Persists in his own carnal nature=goes on in the ways of sin and rebellion against God
Carnal nature (the consequence of the Fall)=sin and rebellion against God. That is original sin.
“Persists” and “Goes on” indicate the condition exists prior to the event which could end it, hence after the event (the opportunity to repent) the unrepentant do not begin sin and rebellion against God, they continue as they were.
Peter John,

Abinadi was teaching a group of priests who were already in a state of rebellion against God. (He actually reached one of them, Alma, with his teaching in a significant way that changed Alma’s life and the lives of many other people who followed Alma’s subsequent teachings.)

Abinadi had already described the rebellion as recorded in Mosiah 15:26-27, and those verses are not talking about Adam or Eve. Those who so rebel against keeping the commandments and against “hearkening unto the voice of the Lord” are those who have “salvation cometh to none such”, because they “die in their sins”.

For one to “go on in the ways of sin and rebellion against God” means that Abinadi was warning the priests of King Noah that they should change their behavior, because they were persisting “in their own carnal nature” and yet were appearing to be teachers and leaders among the people. They were in a state of rebellion against God, and Abinadi was warning them about the consequences if they continued.
 
Peter John,

Abinadi was teaching a group of priests who were already in a state of rebellion against God. (He actually reached one of them, Alma, with his teaching in a significant way that changed Alma’s life and the lives of many other people who followed Alma’s subsequent teachings.)

Abinadi had already described the rebellion as recorded in Mosiah 15:26-27, and those verses are not talking about Adam or Eve. Those who so rebel against keeping the commandments and against “hearkening unto the voice of the Lord” are those who have “salvation cometh to none such”, because they “die in their sins”.

For one to “go on in the ways of sin and rebellion against God” means that Abinadi was warning the priests of King Noah that they should change their behavior, because they were persisting “in their own carnal nature” and yet were appearing to be teachers and leaders among the people. They were in a state of rebellion against God, and Abinadi was warning them about the consequences if they continued.
So you would maintain that statement has no real life application to us?
 
So you would maintain that statement has no real life application to us?
Peter John,

It depends on whether you think you have been taught the commandments of God, and what you do with what you have been taught if you have indeed been taught those commandments to the point of having understood them.

The most specific application would be to any “priest” who goes on in the ways of sin and rebellion by sinning against the light and knowledge they have received, by persisting in their own carnal nature through following the devil who is an enemy to all righteousness, and by not allowing themselves through repentance and through spiritual rebirth to be changed from their carnal nature to a condition where they will accept being taught by hearkening “to the voice of the Lord” (Mosiah 16:2), or in other words, by heeding the Good Shepherd who will call them and invite them but will not force their obedience nor force their heart-felt changes and discipleship.
 
The Book of Moses is not Biblical, and refers to no ancient manuscripts of which I am aware. It apparently corrupts the Genesis acccount with anachronism. Does this mean you concede that your position on original sin is not Biblical?
Peter John,

The problem one quickly runs into when they take the position that the Bible is the be-all and the end-all for theological knowledge and for understanding the plan of salvation, is that they disregard the whole idea that Christ offered and still desires to be the teacher of His “disciples”, who should be students and thus should be learning.

Joseph Smith didn’t take that position. He asked for more knowledge and understanding. God granted such knowledge, quite liberally just as James said as a promise from God–but those with the premise that I noted above, will simply be left out of getting any of that promised knowledge.

Still and all, the “original sin” concept is non-Biblical if it leads to the need for infant baptism, and the teaching that Adam or Eve “rebelled” against God is non-Biblical also.
 
Peter John,

It depends on whether you think you have been taught the commandments of God, and what you do with what you have been taught if you have indeed been taught those commandments to the point of having understood them.

The most specific application would be to any “priest” who goes on in the ways of sin and rebellion by sinning against the light and knowledge they have received, by persisting in their own carnal nature through following the devil who is an enemy to all righteousness, and by not allowing themselves through repentance and through spiritual rebirth to be changed from their carnal nature to a condition where they will accept being taught by hearkening “to the voice of the Lord” (Mosiah 16:2), or in other words, by heeding the Good Shepherd who will call them and invite them but will not force their obedience nor force their heart-felt changes and discipleship.
Thank you for your description of how the Good Shepherd led me to Catholicism. When I finally and unexpectedly ended up in a Catholic mass I came to recognize how much He had been calling me and inviting me for decades, but I would not listen because of the prejudeices embedded in me from my youth. But he blessed me to recognize a people that accepted the words “deth is done away” as lierally as only those present at Christ’s resurrection could. And it has led me to ever more recognize and further repent of my sins, more effectively by far than anything else I had tried before.

Otherwise your answer is mostly unresponsive to my question. In addition it seems an attempt to 1) revert to the apostasy argument and more significant 2) bring up what we catholics call “the scandal”, suggesting that because some priests have made deplorable choices the entire Catholic priesthood is corrupt. I am not biting. If you want to address the implications of the scandal start a separate thread.

We discussed the issue of authority in an earlier thread, and everyone agreed that God does not remove authority from his Church in general on the basis of unrighteousness of individual clergy, and that individual unrighteousness of clergy does not negate the validity of the ordinances/sacraments they perform for the congregation who trusts in them. For now it is a closed issue and not the purpose of the thread.

I am not using the reference as a validation for an argument, but presnting as a gauge of your own accuracy in expressing LDS doctrine. Nothing you have said relates to the actual wording of verse five. Nothing in its historical or current application, whether to only priests or the poulation in general, alters the wording in verse five which equates sin with rebellion against God. If you do not believe that sin is rebellion against God, then you do not believe verse five. If sin is rebellion against God, it matters not who you are, just if you sinned. Sin is rebellion against God.

So the only remaining questions are: 1) Did Adam and Eve sin, or not? 2) What in the Bible negates the concept of Original Sin.
 
Peter John,

The problem one quickly runs into when they take the position that the Bible is the be-all and the end-all for theological knowledge and for understanding the plan of salvation, is that they disregard the whole idea that Christ offered and still desires to be the teacher of His “disciples”, who should be students and thus should be learning.

Joseph Smith didn’t take that position. He asked for more knowledge and understanding. God granted such knowledge, quite liberally just as James said as a promise from God–but those with the premise that I noted above, will simply be left out of getting any of that promised knowledge.

Still and all, the “original sin” concept is non-Biblical if it leads to the need for infant baptism, and the teaching that Adam or Eve “rebelled” against God is non-Biblical also.
Catholics do not believe that the Bible is the be-all and end-all of all theological knowledge. The only Bible that the earliest Christians had was the hebrew and greek Old Testament. The only liturgy they had was the Jewish Synagogue. Their practice involved attending synagogue as jews, and then going to a Christian’s home for their own extension of this. Any valid Christian liturgy today would have to demonstrate the reading and expounding of Holy Writ, which comes from the Synagogues, and the Sacrament of the Lord’s Supper which the Christian’s added.

As far as what Scripture to read from, the early Christians – before the introduction of the gentiles – accepted the full canon of scripture that Jesus used culturally. these included the Hebrew and Greek Old Testament. I the earliest days those were the only scriptures they had to read from, so the worship practice would include reading from those. Since the people who started this worship practice had observed Christ resurrected, it would reflect a complete awareness of the death as a non-entity, as that was the Gospel – the good news.

After the gentiles started coming into the Church, they did not partisipate in synagogue, but they did get familiarized with the Jewish scriptures. By the time of the destruction of the temple, the Church had settled the issue of gentiles and jews in conversion to Christianity. Following the destruction of the temple and the beginning of the Diaspora, the Jewish leaders adavanced a sort of fundamentalism. Jews affirmning Christianity were no longer admitted to synagogue. Any books not written in Hebrew were removed from the Jewish Canon of scripture – and this was before most books in the New Testament had even been written.

So, after the Bible – as it was at the time - went forth from the Jews to the Gentiles (as the majority of converts to Christianity) the plain and precious parts written in Greek were removed. These constitute the seven books of the Old Testament later rejected in Martin Luther’s apostasy, so removed from Protestant bibles as well. These are what the Christians in the first few centuries used as they developed their religious practice. It was not until after the end of the Diocletianian persecutions in the Fourth Century that the Gospels and letters were standardized for inclusion in the formal order of worship.

So well you speak that the Bible is not all. Tradition informed the selection of the Bible, and hence the Bible is all about the Church of the first few centuries. To think that they did not know what it menat, or to suggest that the documents had some meaning lost ignores that they were selected for their contribution to and reinforcement of existing traditions.Any appearance of lost meaning, or misunderstanding of application is from not understanding the traditions they were selected to support in the first place. If they need extensive clarification or amendment to fit in with a liturgical practice, it is because that practice does not comply with the manner of worship of the first Christians.

“Disciple” means one who “sits at the feet” of the teacher, and your description of that echoes exactly when I used to go to the small local chapel in the middle of the night, and sit for a couple of hours at the feet of my Lord hanging on the Cross where he suffered so much. I knew that having been divorced twice, and now being married, I might have a hard choice in being baptized Catholic.

That was when my wife and myself prepared to live as brother and sister the rest of our lives in case any of my prior marriages were deemed valid Christian marriages.,Otherwise we would have been living in adultery, according to the words of the Good Shepherd, and I could not be baptized if living in adultery. Fortunately, that did not have to happen, but I was ready for it. Neither of my prior marriages were deemed valid Christian marriages.

In a prior thread you already defended the practice of baptizing people legally living in adultery, though I do not recall if you defended it from a Biblical perspectiv. I believe you argued it from reason.

You have now stated that Original Sin is not Biblical because it leads to infant baptism, but you have defended neither concept Biblically. Therefore, it is not necessary to discuss whether or not infant baptism is valid. You already affirm it appripriate under original sin.

So, how do you refute original sin Biblically?
 
  1. What in the Bible negates the concept of Original Sin.
Peter John,

Your are the one who brought up the teachings of Abinadi, which you certainly could know if you paid attention as you read the Book of Mormon that he was teaching priests. You then asked for a modern application. I was responding to what you asked, and whether you want to infer what you have inferred is your choice but I did not make that inference.

As to this last question, it seems to me the better approach is for you to show or cite the specific Biblical sources that teach the concept of Original Sin (a non-Biblical term) as you see it, and I will be able to use those sources to show that they do not teach the need for the baptism of infants and do not teach that Adam or Eve rebelled against God when they partook of the forbidden fruit.
 
Peter John,

Your are the one who brought up the teachings of Abinadi, which you certainly could know if you paid attention as you read the Book of Mormon that he was teaching priests. You then asked for a modern application. I was responding to what you asked, and whether you want to infer what you have inferred is your choice but I did not make that inference.

As to this last question, it seems to me the better approach is for you to show or cite the specific Biblical sources that teach the concept of Original Sin (a non-Biblical term) as you see it, and I will be able to use those sources to show that they do not teach the need for the baptism of infants and do not teach that Adam or Eve rebelled against God when they partook of the forbidden fruit.
Since you affirm that the Mosiah refence only applies to sinful priests, that means anyone who is not can persist in sin and rebellion against God. despite the fact that it describes sin as rebellion against God, tht makes it immaterial. You affirm it means that only priests get judged for failure to repent. for persisting in sin and rebellion against God. That is not LDS doctrine.

Where we fail to communicate on the Original Sin issue is either/or 1) you do not accept our affirmation of how we describe it as what we actually believe, 2) We simply disagree on the consequrnces. The concept of original sin as personal responsibility for Adam’s sin was a 19th Century protestant heresy common among frontier America, as was disputation of it. That is what has informed LDS doctrinal inerpretaion in the dispute, but it is not Catholic dogma.

Flyonthewall included passages from LDS manuals describing the human condition as exactly what Catholicism calls original sin. We do not believe it is personal responsibility for Adam’s sin, but collectively being subject to the consequence of separation from God – being in a lost and in a fallen state. Rather than repeat myself, I will intersperse a few references with the remarks I have already made. Most important is
Genesis 3:1-24 usccb.org/nab/bible/genesis/genesis3.htm
Original sin, to try a different way of expressing it, means that we are born with a tendency to seek our own will. God did not create Humanity to be that way in Adam and Eve, but their choice not only brought us mortality, but made it so that we are conceived with that willfulness – we do not have to be taught it.
The next reference is from the plain and precious parts of the Bible that were removed after the Bible went forth from the Jews to the Gentiles.
Wisdom 2:23-24
“For God formed man to be imperishable; the image of his own nature he made him. But by the envy of the devil, death entered the world, and they who are in his possession experience it.”
In context this directly relates this original sin to more specific expression of Christ’s. “The Just One’s’” imminent suffering than anything Isaiah wrote. It was written about 150 B.C, I think about 250 years after Malachi.
usccb.org/nab/bible/wisdom/wisdom2.htm
It is a part of us as children of men. In this willful state, at some time when our will conflicts with the will of God, we will choose our own will over His. That manifests a failure to trust that God knows better. The tendecy toward that is original sin. The actual act against trust in God is personal sin. Even before the actual act, the tendency separates us from Godand.
Rom. 5:12-13 Therefore, just as through one person sin entered the world, and through sin, death, and thus death came to all, inasmuch as all sinned – for up to the time of the law, sin was in the world, though sin is not accounted when there is no law. usccb.org/nab/bible/romans/romans5.htm

1 Cor. 15:20 -23 But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. For since death came through a human being, the resurrection of the dead came also through a human being. For just as in Adam all die, so too in Christ shall all be brought to life, but each one in proper order: Christ the firstfruits; then, at his coming, those who belong to Christ; usccb.org/nab/bible/1corinthians/1corinthians15.htm
One who is truly Holy (and Holy means “set apart”) who is completely free of original sin, would dwell in complete unity and communion with God – even the blood flowing in such a one’s veins would be the blood of the Creator, so complete would be the communion. As humanity it is our common burden, as a consequence of Adam and Eve’s choice, to lack the natural capacity for such a full communion. That is the manifestation of Original Sin. We are in a lost and fallen state unless we rely on (or in other words trust in) our Redeemer.
You already said this leads to the need for infant baptism, so you must show it Biblically wrong .Jesus asserted the necessity of baptism to come to him, and specifically commanded not to hinder children.

Paul declared baptism the replacement for circumcision (Col. 2:11-12), which was primarily for infants and only rarely affecting adults.The fact that Children are not mentioned as excluded is significant. Acts 16:15, Acts 16:33, and 1 Cor. 1:16 all mention entire households or families being baptized without excluding children from the list. The latter example is most significant, since Paul wrote both that and the comparison to circumcision.
 
SteveVH,
It ought to be clear to anyone that I can’t help you understand what I was saying if you take half of a sentence and consider that you have the whole meaning from the sentence. I realize that it served your purpose to do so, but evidently the concept that “all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God” (Romans 3:23) does not bear well with your theological premise. It is, however, exactly what I was saying but had put into words that accepted that scripture and taught the concept.
Orginally Posted by Peter John
I have to take ParkerD’s defense on this one, the full thought is “need to be willing to acknowledge will happen”. we need to acknowledge that sin will happen is what he says, though you have done a good job applying the same technique he used to interpret that reference to interpreting his words.
Parker, first of all I owe you a huge apology. I read through your post very fast for reasons that are not important here, and completely misunderstood your words. To do this and then to make the comments I made was irresponsible at best. I am truly sorry and hope you will accept my apology.

Peter John, thank you for your comments and for coming to Parker’s defense on that one. If there was a way I could delete that post it would be gone.

This was not my best moment.
 
Parker, first of all I owe you a huge apology. I read through your post very fast for reasons that are not important here, and completely misunderstood your words. To do this and then to make the comments I made was irresponsible at best. I am truly sorry and hope you will accept my apology.

Peter John, thank you for your comments and for coming to Parker’s defense on that one. If there was a way I could delete that post it would be gone.

This was not my best moment.
That’s why we get each other’s back’s. I figured it was something like that.
 
Parker, first of all I owe you a huge apology. I read through your post very fast for reasons that are not important here, and completely misunderstood your words. To do this and then to make the comments I made was irresponsible at best. I am truly sorry and hope you will accept my apology.

Peter John, thank you for your comments and for coming to Parker’s defense on that one. If there was a way I could delete that post it would be gone.

This was not my best moment.
SteveVH,

Thanks for your apology, and I accept what you have said and sincerely appreciate your clarification that you misunderstood.
 
SteveVH,

One reason I am explaining this so much is that LDS do not often realize, apart from original sin, how much their view of the fall differs from other Christians. LDS do not base these beliefs on the Bible, and really very little on references to the Fall in the Book of Mormon, though they lean heavily on its, “Adam fell that men might be, and men are that they might have joy.”.
Correct if I’m wrong, I think Irenaeus and the Eastern Orthodox Church share this position with Mormons.

“Some interpreters have suggested a quite different approach to this text, seeing it in terms of a “fall upward,” which the becoming like God theme might suggest…at least since Irenaeus in the second century” (Bruggemann, W.et al., A Theological Introduction to the Old Testament, Abingdon Press, p. 48)
 
…Jesus asserted the necessity of baptism to come to him, and specifically commanded not to hinder children.

Paul declared baptism the replacement for circumcision (Col. 2:11-12), which was primarily for infants and only rarely affecting adults.The fact that Children are not mentioned as excluded is significant. Acts 16:15, Acts 16:33, and 1 Cor. 1:16 all mention entire households or families being baptized without excluding children from the list. The latter example is most significant, since Paul wrote both that and the comparison to circumcision.
Peter John,

By ignoring your other comments, it doesn’t mean I have agreed with what you have written in those comments, nor even with what you said it means I meant–I just am ignoring because the gap of communication is so wide that it doesn’t appear bridgeable.

None of the passages you presented use a word “rebel” or “rebellious” to describe Adam or Eve or their act of partaking the forbidden fruit.

Jesus didn’t baptize the infants who were brought to Him, nor did the apostles, nor did the apostles show by their actions initially that they were in any way familiar with a concept of infants needing baptism or they would have reacted completely differently than sending the parents of those infants away–of course.

I would say that a person who reads Colossians 2:11-13 ought to continue reading through 3:14 to get the full context of the teaching about “putting off the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ,” and then also read Romans 6:2-13 to understand the metaphor Paul was using and the comparison of baptism with the burial of Christ and His resurrection.

The idea that 1 Corinthians 1:16 includes infant baptism is completely refuted by verse 12 and the words “every one of you saith:” An infant wouldn’t be saying “I am of Paul;” or “I am of Apollos;” or “I am of Cephas;” or “I am of Christ”.

A person who reads the verses you cited in Acts ought to read the entire book of Acts and see the many instances where baptism is shown to be a voluntary act on the part of the one receiving belief in Christ and then baptism, such as in Acts 16:30-34 which uses the words “believing in God with all his house.”

Nevertheless, the Bible has been given to the world by God in such a way that your free will choice is given to you even in the simple and important matter of deciding whether you want to believe infants should be baptized–so you may choose to believe they should because of the word “household”, and I may see all of the scriptures that describe baptism completely differently than is done in the method and time of life you have chosen for its being done–and our free will choice will have been allowed in that what was needed by each of us was getting a relationship with Christ and the Holy Ghost that allowed personal revelation about the whole matter and understanding about baptism as being “born of water” in a “second birth” where one “comes out of the water” “a new creature”.
 
By ignoring your other comments, it doesn’t mean I have agreed with what you have written in those comments, nor even with what you said it means I meant–I just am ignoring because the gap of communication is so wide that it doesn’t appear bridgeable.
It will continue to be unbridgeable as long as you continue nresponding to what I did not say. That is not communication. In general I have at least acknowledged your spurious points, but come back to the central focus.

To whom your appropriated image of St. Paul before the Sanhedrin spoke is inappropriate if the words have universal meaning. You have argued that what he said only applies to priests like those he addresses, so that makes it immaterial.
None of the passages you presented use a word “rebel” or “rebellious” to describe Adam or Eve or their act of partaking the forbidden fruit.
I agree. I equated you with a passage equating sin with rebellion. I then asked if you believe Adam sinned. If you do not want to answer that question, and do not want to pay attention to what I already wrote, then forget about it.
Jesus didn’t baptize the infants who were brought to Him, nor did the apostles, nor did the apostles show by their actions initially that they were in any way familiar with a concept of infants needing baptism or they would have reacted completely differently than sending the parents of those infants away–of course.
I agree that nothing reports them doing that. However, given the practice of entering the covenant being required at eight days old in Israel, and given that this was the new manner of entering the covenant, something indicating this change was intended would seem in order to declare that baptizing infants is not valid.

The passage in the Book of Mormon refuting infant Baptism would have disqualified it from the canon of scripture (assuming some documents had been available) early on NOT so much of the refutation of infant baptism, but because of the heresy that baptism is only for forgiveness of sins included within that statement.

Baptism is also how we become Children of God.

We are not born Children of God, “Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God” (John 1:12).
I would say that a person who reads Colossians 2:11-13 ought to continue reading through 3:14 to get the full context of the teaching about “putting off the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ,” and then also read Romans 6:2-13 to understand the metaphor Paul was using and the comparison of baptism with the burial of Christ and His resurrection.
Nothing in any of those verses changes baptism as the replacement for the infant sacrament of circumcision. Regarding the direction you seem to be headed, if you want to start a thread on acceptable forms of baptism go ahead. It is off topic here. None of that affects the central affirmation that baptism replaces circumcision, and circumcision was performed on infants.
The idea that 1 Corinthians 1:16 includes infant baptism is completely refuted by verse 12 and the words “every one of you saith:” An infant wouldn’t be saying “I am of Paul;” or “I am of Apollos;” or “I am of Cephas;” or “I am of Christ”.
Verse 16 is an independendent thought, a discrete statement, tangential and not dependent on the primary assumption of the monologue at that point. In the NAB it is set in parentheses.It is like an aside, a “by the way”.
A person who reads the verses you cited in Acts ought to read the entire book of Acts and see the many instances where baptism is shown to be a voluntary act on the part of the one receiving belief in Christ and then baptism, such as in Acts 16:30-34 which uses the words “believing in God with all his house.”
We do not deny it is a voluntary act – and we do not even affirm unequivocably that it was performed on children during New Testament times. We affirm that the practice is consistent with the scriptures, as the replacement for circumcision as a parental obligation, which covenant the child later chooses to accept or reject. What refutes that?
Nevertheless, the Bible has been given to the world by God in such a way that your free will choice is given to you even in the simple and important matter of deciding whether you want to believe infants should be baptized–so you may choose to believe they should because of the word “household”, and I may see all of the scriptures that describe baptism completely differently than is done in the method and time of life you have chosen for its being done–and our free will choice will have been allowed in that what was needed by each of us was getting a relationship with Christ and the Holy Ghost that allowed personal revelation about the whole matter and understanding about baptism as being “born of water” in a “second birth” where one “comes out of the water” “a new creature”.
As I said, if you want to start a separate thread on the proper form of baptism go ahead. Catholics to recognize baptism by immersion. The only other thing I will comment is that the Native American Sweat Lodge ritual even more closely conforms to the description you offer of what baptism should be, so shouldn’t we baptize that way?
 
Correct if I’m wrong, I think Irenaeus and the Eastern Orthodox Church share this position with Mormons.

“Some interpreters have suggested a quite different approach to this text, seeing it in terms of a “fall upward,” which the becoming like God theme might suggest…at least since Irenaeus in the second century” (Bruggemann, W.et al., A Theological Introduction to the Old Testament, Abingdon Press, p. 48)
Iraeneus may share that view, but it doesn’t make it accurate. Sidney Rigdon had some LDS interpretations inconsistent with Brigham Young, too – but we covered that in another thread.

The second century entailed a lot of discussion on doctrinal interpretation, most of which was not fully settled until after the persecutions ended in the 4th Century.The heresies refuted which agree with Mormonism do not support that Mormonism represents the true practice of the “primitive church”. Many Christian heresies can be identified in the early Church which are consistent with some LDS teachings, but no evidence exists of them being in one place. Any sects that did practice or teach these heresies (substituting water for wine in Communion/non-Trinitarian deity/Jesus as half-God, half-Man/Jesus having to learn who he was) generally had them as exceptions to practices and teachings otherwise consistent with what Ignatius of Antioch called the catholic church as early as the First Century.
 
Correct if I’m wrong, I think Irenaeus and the Eastern Orthodox Church share this position with Mormons.

“Some interpreters have suggested a quite different approach to this text, seeing it in terms of a “fall upward,” which the becoming like God theme might suggest…at least since Irenaeus in the second century” (Bruggemann, W.et al., A Theological Introduction to the Old Testament, Abingdon Press, p. 48)
I can’t tell if you are wrong. You haven’t said anything about what Irenaeus believed, what the Eastern Orthodox teaches, and how that compares with Mormonism. Maybe include a few quotes of Irenaeus.
Some interpreters have suggested quite a different approach to this text, seeing it in terms of a “fall upward,” which the becoming like God theme might suggest. Most have interpreted this “fall” negatively. Human beings transgress the limits of creatureliness and assume godlike powers for themselves; yet, this assumes a more basic problem, namely mistrust. Others have taken theme in a positive direction (at least since Irenaeus in the second century)
What text? something changed since Irenaeus means he believed something? what?
 
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