C
Chris-WA
Guest
The Disciples were all believing Jews, so I assumed your claim that the disciples believed in pre-existence was an indication of Jewish belief at that time. But you have clarified that the disciples, not the Jews in general, believed in pre-existence. You have made a huge assumption that Jesus taught this doctrine to them based on your interpretation of the context. You should never assume Jesus taught a new doctrine like this without more specific mention of such teaching in scripture. We have no record of such a teaching, and for you to assume such a thing is a giant leap to make all on your own. You have a habit of retroactively projecting modern-day Mormon doctrines back on the early Church with very shaky scriptural support at best. The LDS Church, in general, does the same thing with a lot of the bible. It takes parts of certain passages, bypasses their central meaning, and creates whole new meanings from obsure phrases to support their modern day doctrines. It’s a perfect example of the problem of re-interpretation of scripture 2000 years after the fact. It’s why we have thousands of Protestant denominations, Jehova’s Witnesses, Mormons, Seventh Day Adventists, and the list goes on and on–each one of them claiming (in modern times) to have the right interpretation. If they only knew that Christ left us a Church to interpret scripture authoritatively and guide us into all truth until the end of time.And why do you ignore the context, and why do you twist the words completely out of context? Who said anything about “the Jews believing in the pre-existence”? The context suggests that the disciples of Jesus knew abut the pre-existence, presumably because Jesus must have told them. The question asked and answer given can only make sense if they believed in the pre-existence, and if Jesus agreed with them. There is no other way in which that question and that answer could be understood.
zerinus