My struggle with the Immaculate Conception and Assumption of Mary

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The Orthodox don’t require belief she was sinless from conception but there is much scriptural support especially in the OT types.
Orthodox take the same view as our Eastern Catholic brethren on the issue. They don’t agree that Original Sin gives personal guilt to every human. So the Imaculate Conception is as astonishing as 2+2=4. But while the IC may not be as special, they still do hold she remained ever sinless.
She went from being in unwed mother,
Mary and Joseph were married.

It was only started being a belief first in the eastern churches in the 5th century and the west in the 6th. That is not unchangeable…
Someone already mentioned relics. The early Christians really sought out relics. Despite that, we don’t have relics of Mary. If there was a body, we would have relics. Which shows that even when they collected relics from martyrs and the Apostles, Mary was different.

Also, as you know, we have texts about the Assumption as far back as the third (maybe even second) century. And as widespread as they are over geography and language, the oral tradition had to already be strong. And while we have ECFs debating many Gnostic beliefs in their writings, the Gnostic belief in The Assumption was never contradicted.

In my opinion, those are strong reasons to see it as a historical belief. Time Staples goes over the history for about 10 pages in Chapter 11 in Behold Your Mother and that’s where I’m getting this from. (There are other things he talks about, but these are some of the highlights IMO.)
 
Perhaps I should have used the words “unplanned pregnancy” as she was not expected to be having sex at that time.
Actually, it was accepted. (If not, then she would be guilty of fornication, right? 😉 )

So, in those days, ‘betrothal’ meant a whole lot more than “engagement” means today. You were already, literally, considered married – with all the rights and obligations that implies – even if you hadn’t moved in together.
 
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