My understanding of Mohammad

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Yemenis even had to hire kaffir scholars to translate the manuscripts from ancient Arabic to modern, which proves my point that even Arabic has changed over the last 1,400 years.
There’s no question that Arabic has changed. There’s vernacular Arabic (spoken at home and on the street), formal Arabic (heard on newscasts and used in newspapers I believe) and classical Arabic. The Koran is written in classical Arabic. Is this really the bone of contention between you and Amy?
 

And the bit about the Quran not confirming the Holy Bible- obvious to all that infact it does.
In fact, it does both: it affirms the Bible and at the same time claims it is corrupted.
On the one hand, Islam claims Judeo-Christianity and its sacred texts originate from God and from other apostles like Mohammed. But on the other hand, what if these religions and their sacred texts deny or contradict Islam? This would mean either one of two things.
First, Mohammed and Islam are in contradiction of what the Koran itself repeatedly declares to be God’s apostles and God’s scriptures. Or second, Judeo-Christianity and its sacred texts are incorrect on all points and issues where they contradict Islam. But if the Judeo-Christian apostles and scriptures, which the Koran affirms as God’s work, are in error, then they cannot be God’s work as the Koran claims. And that would mean that the Koran is in error for affirming them as God-given predecessors, in which case Islam would also be nullified.
In either case, if the Judeo-Christian beliefs and sacred texts contradict Islam and the Koran, then Islam is in error through contradiction, not just contradiction with Judeo-Christianity, but contradiction with itself because of the endorsement claims made by the Koran.
– “Evidentiary Religions: Islam Introduction” biblestudying.net/islam1.html
Islamic scholars attempt to get around this contradiction by claiming the Bible has been “corrupted”. But if that is so, then they have sabotaged their own evidence, and you can’t use error to prove truth. IOW, any idea that contradicts its own proof is false.
 
I think the big issue here comes from Jesus saying the trust the gospel and failing that than to at least trust the miracles he performed as a way to know his message is trust worthy and to have faith. There is no threat of violence involved in his message. Mohammed can’t make the same claim. So to me atleast this is a glaring difference in messages.
The sad fact is that there are people who are Christians that do bad things. But, one should ask themselves are they really Following The Father when they do bad things or are they following their Father when they do bad things. Case in point when Jesus confronted some jews about their legitamacy. They said they were following their Father. And he admonished them saying if that was the case they’d love him not try to kill him. He told them they were following their father The Evil One and even Moses would admonish them in the end.
So when I see muslims that oppress other people and kill them it makes me wonder. If the Koran really condones that then I don’t think it’s truly from the Father but rather from the Evil one. now many could and do argue that the Old testament did the same thing I agree with them but only to a point. The places and people wiped out in the OT were offensive to God and when the New Testament Gospel was proclaimed it was because Jesus fufilled the Old Testament. his message was more about a loving relationship with God the Father rather than observing strict Laws that didn’t generate love.
Peace be with you.
gmcbroom
 
There’s no question that Arabic has changed. There’s vernacular Arabic (spoken at home and on the street), formal Arabic (heard on newscasts and used in newspapers I believe) and classical Arabic.
Sounds like the same as with French and Korean.
The Koran is written in classical Arabic. Is this really the bone of contention between you and Amy?
I don’t know. I think she is missing my point. The discussion began with someone saying that they only true Koran is in Arabic [classical Arabic, if you will]. I can accept this statement, but if I do, then I also have to accept the following:1. To be a true believer, a potential convert would have to understand classical Arabic; otherwise he would not know what to believe to become a Muslim; and/or,
  1. An Islamic scholar would have to explain Islam in classical Arabic to him before he would know what to believe;
  2. Non-Arabic Korans are not true Korans [this would also apply to non-classical Arabic Korans];
  3. Since most Muslims do not speak Arabic, much less classical Arabic, they do not know what they claim to believe [note here that this is not the same as saying I have to know ancient Greek to be a Christian, because there is no claim that the only true Bible is in ancient Greek];
  4. Since the number of people who understand classical Arabic is getting smaller [similar to the case of medieval English], the Koran cannot be the perfect word of Allah because it is conveying Islam’s message to fewer and fewer true believers.
 
Sounds like the same as with French and Korean.
More like French and Latin or maybe even French and Old French?
I don’t know. I think she is missing my point. The discussion began with someone saying that they only true Koran is in Arabic [classical Arabic, if you will]. I can accept this statement, but if I do, then I also have to accept the following:
1. To be a true believer, a potential convert would have to understand classical Arabic; otherwise he would not know what to believe to become a Muslim; and/or, …

Pious Muslims certainly seem to regard learning Arabic as a beneficial thing to do and they encourage people to learn at least parts of the Koran by heart in order to recite it (I would imagine that’s a large part of the curriculum in traditional madrassas). Whether that means those who don’t study the Arabic of the Koran are not true Muslims is not up to me to say (but I don’t think it’s one of the five pillars of Islam). I also don’t think you need to have access to a holy book (even one as central to Islam as the Koran is) to understand the tenets of a religion – remember that throughout most of human history the number of literate people has always been a small fraction of the total population. If you look at religion as a cultural system then you “learn” it by osmosis from an early age through enculturation.​
 
Mohammad wanted to be a Jewish prophet. Naturally the Jews would have nothing to do with him. Therefore he turned on the Jews and began killing them with his own sword cutting off their heads. He killed thousands of Jews and that is why the Muslims today are determined to wipe Israel and all Jews off the face of the earth. Mohammad told his followers to kill every single Jew. They are determined to wipe out all religion except Islam. They killed 50 million Hindus in 500 years. They are not a peaceful religion but a political system that seeks to rule the world. You should read the new book Yawm ad-Din Protocols. It tells in detail how Islam has tried to wipe out the Catholic Church. The Pope had to build the Leonine wall around the Vatican to keep them out. They invaded Italy in the 700s and killed the Abbot at Monte Casino and invaded Rome. The Pope had to pay them a monetary tribute a number of times to get rid of them. They invaded Spain and took 5000 people captive in Granada and took them into slavery. Yawm ad-Din is a an exciting thriller about how Islam has tried to destroy the Church. Until Ferdinand and Isabella kicked them out of Spain, they occupied the country for 700 years. It is a great book. I can’t recommend it enough.
Bob Troutman
 
Maybe not change the Quran but the way it is taught? Some of the meanings of certain words are questionable- if taken as explained by muslims the Quran is incorrect. Such as the word for the unlettered prophet. Muslims say it is Mohammad- it in no way fits Mohammad.- fits Jesus like a glove:

7.157: “Those who follow the messenger, the unlettered Prophet, whom they find mentioned in their own (scriptures),- in the law and the Gospel;- for he commands them what is just and forbids them what is evil; he allows them as lawful what is good (and pure) and prohibits them from what is bad (and impure); He releases them from their heavy burdens and from the yokes that are upon them. So it is those who believe in him, honour him, help him, and follow the light which is sent down with him,- it is they who will prosper.”

And the bit about the Quran not confirming the Holy Bible- obvious to all that infact it does.

There are also those initial letters- has anyone figured those out yet?

How do you feel about a reformation in Islam?
yuksel.org/e/books/rtq.htm

Not sure what you mean the New Testament is availabe in it’s original greek.
So Jesus was illiterate, is what you’re saying. Not sure how that’s going to hold water, but whatever.

The حروف مقطعة are part of the miracle of the Qur’an, and you’re not supposed to know their meaning.
 
These are only personal beliefs, not facts, because there is no original Koran to compare the current Koran with any more than there are original Gospels. You can believe anything you want about the existence of books in heaven, but the closest you have on earth is the Yemeni manuscripts which are not the same as the modern Koran. Yemenis even had to hire kaffir scholars to translate the manuscripts from ancient Arabic to modern, which proves my point that even Arabic has changed over the last 1,400 years. Then you have Caliph Uthman who had a Koran produced because various Muslim communities had begun to recite and write down their own versions with differences. He ordered all other manuscripts to be burned.

So we can see that even in such a short period of time after Mohammed that differences in Arabic were creeping into the Koran, both orally and written. For all their accusations that the Bible had been written by men with ulterior motives, what do Muslims have to offer? A Koran written by men with ulterior motives.
So basically, you just believe whatever you want because you feel like it? Even though it contradicts known facts?
 
There has been corrupted Qurans found. One that I know of. It was also written over other text to rewrite it. It was found in the mosgue of Sarna, in Yemen. They believe it was written and rewritten 70yrs after Muhammad’s death.
I keep hearing people talk about this supposedly “corrupt” Qur’an. But it’s not what it has been claimed to be. I’m not convinced there are actual differences in the text, just the script.
 
youtube.com/watch?v=-x1JsyFrpKg
There is NO language on earth that hasn’t changed over its history. To think languages don’t change is someone who doesn’t know history or refuses to know history.
Of course what people are speaking today is different. What I’m saying is that the language has been preserved in its proper form, as has the understanding of it. And though Arabs don’t speak it, you’ll find thousands, if not hundreds of thousands, of people alive today who are fully fluent in ancient Arabic, and even Arabs who haven’t studied ancient Arabic can still understand the Qur’an. It’s not how they speak today, but they can still understand it.

And someone showed me this same video (or a similar one, with the same clip plus all kinds of Christian ranting as well) about a week or so ago.

And I stand by what I said. The “mistakes” aren’t significant, especially since nobody knows what the purpose of this text actually was. What the text proves to me, actually, is that the Qur’an was the same then as it currently is. And since that a German so-called Qur’an expert was necessary to understand it doesn’t say much (to me) regarding the scholarship.

A few mistakes are made in the video–the narrator says that the fragments (because the “text” isn’t just a Qur’an, it’s apparently pages from lots of Qur’ans or notes or anything else) are written in shorthand. But what they show in the video isn’t “shorthand.” It’s just ancient Arabic script, which didn’t use the dots and dashes that are used today.

And pointing to the supposed differences in the text, I’m not convinced at all that there are actual differences, since I can read both texts and see the meaning. Simple differences (they only mentioned one, saying هو instead of الله which is an easy mistake to make since it doesn’t change the meaning and phrsaes like that are common, with either) can be attributed easily to human error (Biblical texts are riddled with them) that wasn’t caught by an editor.

I really do think Christians have taken these texts and run wild thinking that it exposes something new about the Qur’an when in fact, it doesn’t.
 
Of course what people are speaking today is different. What I’m saying is that the language has been preserved in its proper form, as has the understanding of it. And though Arabs don’t speak it, you’ll find thousands, if not hundreds of thousands, of people alive today who are fully fluent in ancient Arabic, and even Arabs who haven’t studied ancient Arabic can still understand the Qur’an. It’s not how they speak today, but they can still understand it.

And someone showed me this same video (or a similar one, with the same clip plus all kinds of Christian ranting as well) about a week or so ago.

And I stand by what I said. The “mistakes” aren’t significant, especially since nobody knows what the purpose of this text actually was. What the text proves to me, actually, is that the Qur’an was the same then as it currently is. And since that a German so-called Qur’an expert was necessary to understand it doesn’t say much (to me) regarding the scholarship.

A few mistakes are made in the video–the narrator says that the fragments (because the “text” isn’t just a Qur’an, it’s apparently pages from lots of Qur’ans or notes or anything else) are written in shorthand. But what they show in the video isn’t “shorthand.” It’s just ancient Arabic script, which didn’t use the dots and dashes that are used today.

And pointing to the supposed differences in the text, I’m not convinced at all that there are actual differences, since I can read both texts and see the meaning. Simple differences (they only mentioned one, saying هو instead of الله which is an easy mistake to make since it doesn’t change the meaning and phrsaes like that are common, with either) can be attributed easily to human error (Biblical texts are riddled with them) that wasn’t caught by an editor.

I really do think Christians have taken these texts and run wild thinking that it exposes something new about the Qur’an when in fact, it doesn’t.
There is only one language that I know of that has stayed pure, uncorrupted at least up to the 1980’s and not adopted any foreign words - Icelandic.

An icelandic speaking person from today can read the ancient sagas with no difficulty. The words have not changed. When a new technology comes up they make an icelandic words for it.

Here is an example from 2 different Qurans, the verses for some reason are numbered different. May be the difference between Shia, Sunni, Ahmadiyya qurans:
Hafs -
they lied … 2:10
you (plural) say … 2:140
he gives them … 4:152
we give mercy … 2:58
he killed … 3.146

Warsh -
they were lied to … 2:9
they say … 2:139
we give them … 4:151
he gives mercy … 2:57
he was killed … 3.146
 
Of course what people are speaking today is different. What I’m saying is that the language has been preserved in its proper form, as has the understanding of it. And though Arabs don’t speak it, you’ll find thousands, if not hundreds of thousands, of people alive today who are fully fluent in ancient Arabic, and even Arabs who haven’t studied ancient Arabic can still understand the Qur’an. It’s not how they speak today, but they can still understand it.
“Hundreds of thousands” compared to the billion or so isn’t much [but see below]. Besides, how can someone understand a language and not speak it? I think you are arguing in circles.

And I stand by what I said. The “mistakes” aren’t significant, especially since nobody knows what the purpose of this text actually was.
This is an astounding admission that no one knows what the purpose of the Qur’an is.
What the text proves to me, actually, is that the Qur’an was the same then as it currently is. And since that a German so-called Qur’an expert was necessary to understand it doesn’t say much (to me) regarding the scholarship.
I didn’t say he was a “Qur’an expert”, only that he was able to translate the ancient manuscripts. That the Yemeni authorities had to hire a kaffir says that in all of the Islamic countries, there wasn’t a single believer [then numbering in the hundreds of millions] who knew ancient Arabic, and you dismiss this as “not saying much”. I would think it would be of great concern in view of all the claims Islam makes about its foundational texts, most important that the Qur’an is the unalterable, perfect word of Allah. It also disproves your statement that “hundreds of thousands” can understand ancient Arabic. Where did these “hundreds of thousands” come from? None were around in 1972 when the documents were unearthed. We must conclude that sometime between Mohammed’s time and now there was a period [encompassing 1972] when no one understood ancient Arabic, and that the “hundreds of thousands” appeared sometime after 1972. Who did they learn it from?

The bottom line question to all of this is [at the risk of repetition] why would Allah establish “the one true religion for the whole world” in an esoteric language that only a few understand?
 
I’ve stayed out of this thread because I don’t want to risk receiving any more infractions for being too blunt about my understanding of Muhammad (and I find it hard not to be, since it really is obvious to me that he is not a prophet of God), but linguistic claims are something else, so…
“Hundreds of thousands” compared to the billion or so isn’t much [but see below]. Besides, how can someone understand a language and not speak it? I think you are arguing in circles.
Without supporting Sister Amy’s ultimate point about the Qur’an, I can say that in general this is usually how language learning works. Anyone who has learned a foreign language has probably experienced the frustration of understanding much more than they can speak. With time and much exposure and practice, if you work hard enough things can reach an equilibrium.
There is only one language that I know of that has stayed pure, uncorrupted at least up to the 1980’s and not adopted any foreign words - Icelandic.

An icelandic speaking person from today can read the ancient sagas with no difficulty. The words have not changed. When a new technology comes up they make an icelandic words for it.
This is not quite accurate. It is true that Icelandic has changed less than many other languages, and that native Icelandic speakers can read the old sagas with little difficulty, but there are still many loanwords in it. With regard to its unchanged character, the same is true to a greater degree of Lithuanian, which has preserved Proto-Indo European roots to a greater degree than any other language of Europe I took a seminar course in Lithuanian and Proto-Indo European that illustrated this point quite effectively: After only a few weeks of intensive study in both Proto-Indo European linguistics and Lithuanian, we read from the first printed Lithuanian book (Martynas Mazvydas’ 1547 catechism) with little difficulty.

Linguistic purism movements such as the type supported by the Icelandic government (and others for their own national languages) are pretty interesting, in that they are not (strictly speaking) necessary. While Iceland apparently forms some sort of official body to coin “Icelandic” forms of loanwords, Navajo (a language with no such official regulating body) has done that naturally, for instance by using body part terms for automobile vocabulary (see A Neundorf “Terminology development in Navajo” in International Journal of American Linguistics, 1982).
 
“Hundreds of thousands” compared to the billion or so isn’t much [but see below]. Besides, how can someone understand a language and not speak it? I think you are arguing in circles.


This is an astounding admission that no one knows what the purpose of the Qur’an is.

I didn’t say he was a “Qur’an expert”, only that he was able to translate the ancient manuscripts. That the Yemeni authorities had to hire a kaffir says that in all of the Islamic countries, there wasn’t a single believer [then numbering in the hundreds of millions] who knew ancient Arabic, and you dismiss this as “not saying much”. I would think it would be of great concern in view of all the claims Islam makes about its foundational texts, most important that the Qur’an is the unalterable, perfect word of Allah. It also disproves your statement that “hundreds of thousands” can understand ancient Arabic. Where did these “hundreds of thousands” come from? None were around in 1972 when the documents were unearthed. We must conclude that sometime between Mohammed’s time and now there was a period [encompassing 1972] when no one understood ancient Arabic, and that the “hundreds of thousands” appeared sometime after 1972. Who did they learn it from?

The bottom line question to all of this is [at the risk of repetition] why would Allah establish “the one true religion for the whole world” in an esoteric language that only a few understand?
You’ve got a few things wrong with your analysis, I think, but which I don’t have the facts to refute properly (just like I doubt you have them to support your position either.)

Throughout the Islamic world, the only way anyone can study Islam (until the last decade or so, anyway) at any deep level is by first learning classical Arabic. All major Islamic universities teach in classical Arabic, and so you have to be able to speak and understand it before you can study Islam. And it’s been that way for 1400 years, not anything new. Everyone who studies Islam seriously has to learn Arabic.

But one doesn’t have to become fluent in Arabic to be Muslim. And huge numbers of Muslim populations in India, Pakistan, and Indonesia don’t speak Arabic as a first language.

But like I said, if any of them go study Islam anywhere (in India, in Pakistan, in Indonesia, Mauritania, Syria, Saudi Arabia, or anywhere in the Muslim world) they must first learn Arabic. And they do, just like I am doing now, learning Arabic from the same grammatical texts which have been around for centuries like الاجرومية and الالبية.
 
There is only one language that I know of that has stayed pure, uncorrupted at least up to the 1980’s and not adopted any foreign words - Icelandic.

An icelandic speaking person from today can read the ancient sagas with no difficulty. The words have not changed. When a new technology comes up they make an icelandic words for it.

Here is an example from 2 different Qurans, the verses for some reason are numbered different. May be the difference between Shia, Sunni, Ahmadiyya qurans:
Hafs -
they lied … 2:10
you (plural) say … 2:140
he gives them … 4:152
we give mercy … 2:58
he killed … 3.146

Warsh -
they were lied to … 2:9
they say … 2:139
we give them … 4:151
he gives mercy … 2:57
he was killed … 3.146
The different readings enhance the meaning, actually, without changing it. Very nuanced, and something I’m fairly sure you won’t understand unless you have a good foundation in صرف (Arabic morphology.) I think you probably copied and pasted this from somewhere else so I won’t bother responding.
 
Linguistic purism movements such as the type supported by the Icelandic government (and others for their own national languages) are pretty interesting, in that they are not (strictly speaking) necessary. While Iceland apparently forms some sort of official body to coin “Icelandic” forms of loanwords, Navajo (a language with no such official regulating body) has done that naturally, for instance by using body part terms for automobile vocabulary (see A Neundorf “Terminology development in Navajo” in International Journal of American Linguistics, 1982).
Yes an official body coins the new words,. Very interesting about the Navajo language. If there isn’t an offiicial body how do they agree on which body part goes with which automobile part?

LOL! Now I know of 2 languages. I love the thought of all the different alnguages staying pure. Adds spice.

One thing I think is very boring about Islam- all pray the same language, dress the same way, everything to be done only one certain way, etc…
 
The different readings enhance the meaning, actually, without changing it. Very nuanced, and something I’m fairly sure you won’t understand unless you have a good foundation in صرف (Arabic morphology.) I think you probably copied and pasted this from somewhere else so I won’t bother responding.
Explain how *hafs- they lied … 2:10 * enhances warsh- they were lied to … 2:9. Note the same verses are numbered differently.

One is deceiving self the other is someone deceiving them.
In context of the verses:
2.008 Of the people there are some who say: “We believe in Allah and the Last Day;” but they do not believe.

2.009 Fain would they deceive Allah and those who believe, but they only deceive themselves, and realise not!

2.010 In their hearts is a disease; and Allah has increased their disease: And grievous is the penalty they, because they are false to themselves.
 
LOL! Yes, even some muslims believing all Christians bow to statues of Mary., etc.

Actually muslms believe that is part of the beauty of Islam all praying the very same prayer, at very specific times throughout the day in the very same arabic.

The dressing the same way, everything else following exactly how Mohammad did it - that would be the Islamic ideal.
 
…Everyone who studies Islam seriously has to learn Arabic.

But one doesn’t have to become fluent in Arabic to be Muslim.
So believers need not necessarily study Islam seriously to be good Muslims?
And huge numbers of Muslim populations in India, Pakistan, and Indonesia don’t speak Arabic as a first language.
Here you have introduced a confusion factor, “Arabic as a first language.” What does being able to “speak Arabic as a first language” have to do with whether or not you need to know Arabic to be a believer?
But like I said, if any of them go study Islam anywhere (in India, in Pakistan, in Indonesia, Mauritania, Syria, Saudi Arabia, or anywhere in the Muslim world) they must first learn Arabic. And they do, just like I am doing now, learning Arabic from the same grammatical texts which have been around for centuries like الاجرومية and الالبية.
What does this prove? Only that Arabic is some sort of universal language for Islamic theological centers.

You still are avoiding my bottom line question: Why would Allah choose to reveal his one true religion for all men for all time in an esoteric language that cannot be understood by all men – including all Muslims, since most [as you stated] do not speak Arabic? How could he expect all men to learn Arabic first before they could study Islam “seriously”?
 
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