I do not know if they incurred the wrath of God+. They might have or may or may not. I have not seen the wrath of God+ and can only cite what was written. God + does what he wants when he wants wherever he wants. I cannot say when he shall pass judgment. I am not avoiding answering your questions but I think I have written some of you answers about it on this thread. Also I am not always online so I apologize
My point in asking that question was to show that St. Pius V was not binding future popes when he promulgated the Tridentine Rite “in perpetuity.” Promulgation of a rite is a
disciplinary action, but popes are not bound by preceding popes’ disciplinary actions. The reason is because each pope is given the fulness of the power of binding and loosing promised by Jesus to Peter: “And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.” (Matt. 16:19)
St. Pius V’s
De Defectibus and
Quo Primum do NOT bind future popes. Neither
De Defectibus nor
Quo Primum infallibly defined faith and morals; they were both disciplinary documents. To say that they do bind future popes is the equivalent of saying St. Pius V had a greater share in the primacy of Peter than the other popes did because his disciplinary norms bind future popes.
St. Pius X and Pope Pius XII both promulgated revisions of the Tridentine Rite in “violation” of
Quo Primum. This shows conclusively that
Quo Primum does not bind future popes.
Please see post#72 and another post hopefully soon. I think Mysterium fidei should present because of how important the meaning has for us. I am posting another response so please review it. Thank you.
I’m a little confused by this since your post #72 was in response to AJV, not me, but I’ll see what I can do.
St. Pius V, you want me tell you why a SAINT not insist,… I thought he was clear (please review my posts on this thread). Perhaps you can explain why he only insisted or directed it to one group and not to All of the Church. Since you claim it was for one rite and not the other, what is the justification for its exclusion?
If you look carefully at
Quo Primum, you will see that St. Pius V specifically excluded the Eastern rites by saying that all rites having existed for more than 200 hundred years before the promulgation of the Tridentine were exempted from being superseded by the Tridentine; the Eastern rites were among those that had existed for more than 200 years previously, so they were not affected by the promulgation of the Tridentine.
“Let all everywhere adopt and observe what has been handed down by the Holy Roman Church, the Mother and Teacher of the other churches, and let Masses not be sung or read according to any other formula than that of this Missal published by Us. This ordinance applies henceforth, now, and forever, throughout all the provinces of the Christian world, to all patriarchs, cathedral churches, collegiate and parish churches, be they secular or religious, both of men and of women—even of military orders—and of churches or chapels without a specific congregation in which conventual Masses are sung aloud in choir or read privately in accord with the rites and customs of the Roman Church. This Missal is to be used by all churches, even by those which in their authorization are made exempt, whether by Apostolic indult, custom, or privilege, or even if by oath or official confirmation of the Holy See, or have their rights and faculties guaranteed to them by any other manner whatsoever. This new rite alone is to be used
unless approval of the practice of saying Mass differently was given at the very time of the institution and confirmation of the church by Apostolic See at least 200 years ago, or unless there has prevailed a custom of a similar kind which has been continuously followed for a period of not less than 200 years, in which most cases We in no wise rescind their above-mentioned prerogative or custom.”
I am not sure if you have the same understanding as this above, but if you do, do you suggest Mysterium Fidei it is not required? Why?
I hold that
Mysterium Fidei is not required, in the absolute sense, for transubstantiation because the Eastern rites, which are still valid rites as I showed above from St. Pius V’s bull, do not have it.
Mysterium Fidei may, however, be required for transubstantiation in the Tridentine Rite since it is in the approved formula for that rite, and it is forbidden to priests by
De Defectibus, at the risk of an invalid consecration, to change the formula of consecration.
Maria