Name one Catholic teaching that contradicts Scripture

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The title of this post alone tells you that this is a topic that will never find resolution. Scripture is written so vaguely and is very-much open for interpretation. Good luck!
 
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mrs_abbott:
The title of this post alone tells you that this is a topic that will never find resolution. Scripture is written so vaguely and is very-much open for interpretation. Good luck!
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Exactly 👍 . That is why we have so many Protestant denominations all claiming to be Christian and bible based but yet contradictory of eachother. That is why Christ left us his Church and the teaching office of the Magisterium which is protected by the Holy Spirit who leads His Church into all truth.
 
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Eden:
Exactly 👍 . That is why we have so many Protestant denominations all claiming to be Christian and bible based but yet contradictory of eachother. That is why Christ left us his Church and the teaching office of the Magisterium which is protected by the Holy Spirit who leads His Church into all truth.
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:amen:
 
kujo313]Ah HA!! Knew it!! You talk about “scripture” and when you are challenged, you pull out something that ain’t in the Bible at all.
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In your post #318, you asked for a proof of an unwritten Tradition evident in the lives of the disciples.
Post #319 was a direct answer to your request. St. Ignatious was a direct disciple of St. John and learned his faith from him. This is the evidence you requested

Your quote about “scripture” is proof that you are not interested in proof or Truth at all.

Your ears and eyes are closed to the Truth and I say we should wash the dust off our sandals…
 
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M_Oliver:
Catholics pray TO Saints don’t they? Whether alive or dead.
I know some that do pray TO dead people(Mary)because they are supposedly Saints…

Very unscriptural.
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If you think that Mary is dead, or Paul or John, or Luke, or any of those who lived for Christ and died in the flesh, then you show a complete lack of faith in the promises of Jesus Christ!
He promised eternal life to those who believe in Him and love Him. Do you honestly think that you are the only one the promise applies to? Your arrogance is sickening!
 
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mrs_abbott:
The title of this post alone tells you that this is a topic that will never find resolution. Scripture is written so vaguely and is very-much open for interpretation. Good luck!
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The bible is NOT open for interpretation. The bible is only for the church to interpret. The church teaches us Catholics and we pray to the Holy Spirit. We also have our Catechism. Then and only then can Catholics and only Catholics, interpret the bible. I say only Catholics because we are under the guidance of the Catholic Church’s teachings. That is the way Jesus left it. He built His church on Peter the Rock.

20 Know this first of all, that there is no prophecy
of scripture that is a matter of personal interpretation 2 Pet 1:20

18 And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this
rock I will build my church, and the gates of the netherworld
shall not prevail against it.
19 I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven.
Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and
whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven." Matt 16:18-19

Sure Protestants can read the bible. I know and realize that Protestants love the bible and they love Jesus. But they don’t always get the right interpretation. That is why there are so many different denominations. Luther left Peter and he had his followers, they then became scattered like sheep without a shepherd because that’s exactly what they are. I pray for the conversion of all sinners including the ones inside the Catholic Church and myself. Conversion is a life long process and we are called to holiness. Catholics have the assurance of the Church to back them up and guide them in the reading of the bible. Not only that, we have the Mass which is the best “Bible Study” in the world.
 
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AlegreFe:
The bible is NOT open for interpretation. **The bible is only for the church to interpret. ** The church teaches us Catholics and we pray to the Holy Spirit. We also have our Catechism. Then and only then can Catholics and only Catholics, interpret the bible. I say only Catholics because we are under the guidance of the Catholic Church’s teachings.
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I’m confused. First you said the bible is NOT open for interpretation. Then you said only the church can interpret. Then you go on to say only Catholics can because “they are under the guidance of the Catholic Church’s teachings”.
Which one is it? Do you know?
 
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mrs_abbott:
I’m confused. First you said the bible is NOT open for interpretation. Then you said only the church can interpret. Then you go on to say only Catholics can because “they are under the guidance of the Catholic Church’s teachings”.
Which one is it? Do you know?
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I think that the Bible, in certain parts, is up for interpretation. Here’s a link that shows the verses that have been infallibly interpreted by the Magisterium of the Catholic Church:

cathinsight.com/apologetics/verses.htm
 
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mrs_abbott:
I’m confused. First you said the bible is NOT open for interpretation. Then you said only the church can interpret. Then you go on to say only Catholics can because “they are under the guidance of the Catholic Church’s teachings”.
Which one is it? Do you know?
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I’m sure she does. 🙂 One is free to read Scripture and to find personal guidance in it; one is not free, however, to assert that one’s personal interpretation (even that of a Catholic reader) is THE interpretation, especially when it contradicts what the Magisterium, the teaching office of the Church established by Christ to protect His self-revelation, what is termed the “Deposit of Faith”.

This article may help you:

bringyou.to/apologetics/a44.htm
 
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FCEGM:
one is not free, however, to assert that one’s personal interpretation (even that of a Catholic reader) is THE interpretation
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We’d have completely anarchy with ALL religion!!! :bigyikes:
 
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mrs_abbott:
I’m confused. First you said the bible is NOT open for interpretation. Then you said only the church can interpret. Then you go on to say only Catholics can because “they are under the guidance of the Catholic Church’s teachings”.
Which one is it? Do you know?
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It’s all of the above. I put bible quotes there for you to read. The bible is not open to private or personal interpretation. When the Church interprets the bible it is not personal or private. So therefore, if we follow the Church’s teachings, then we as Catholics are not privately interpreting the bible.

Do not try to trump up a Catholic that knows their faith well. It won’t work. I guess I should’ve worded it just a wee bit differently so that you wouldn’t try to trump me up. Even though it would never work. And if I don’t know something, I would call on the help of these great Catholics here or look in my Catechism and get back to you.
 
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AlegreFe:
Do not try to trump up a Catholic that knows their faith well. It won’t work. I guess I should’ve worded it just a wee bit differently so that you wouldn’t try to trump me up. Even though it would never work. And if I don’t know something, I would call on the help of these great Catholics here or look in my Catechism and get back to you.
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No trumping was intended. I was simply looking for clarification because when I first read it, you seemed like you contradicted yourself. Now that you clarified, I understand your point.
You know your faith well, eh? Are you a member of the clergy or just a studious Catholic?
 
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RyanL:
This is, I believe, what you’re refering to. This verse refers to personal sin (i.e., sins which we have committed), correct? What if I could show you an exception?

ME: How about Jesus?

YOU: “Yeah…but He’s God”

ME: True, and Mary is the “Mother of God”, but that’s not the issue. Jesus is also 100% man. This verse says all have sinned.

YOU: “Well…Jesus is an exception.”

ME: Ahhh…so we’re making exceptions! What if I could show you millions of exceptions?

YOU: “Yeah, right!”

ME: The mentally impaired and the very young are all incapable of personal sin, as they are not of “the age of reason”. So, there are millions on the planet right now who have *not *sinned, and are thereby an exception to the “all”. This statement is a general principle, and not an absolute rule.

To tack onto what MariaG already said:
In Luke 1:28, the angle of the Lord says to Mary, “…Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee…” (KJV). We have to understand something before we discuss this… In the OT (and in the new), when a person’s name is changed by God it shows who they are, as well as what they are called. God changed Abram’s name to Abraham (father of many), Sarai’s to Sarah (princess), Jacob became Israel, Jesus was called Emmanuel, Simon became Peter, etc. EVERY TIME this occurs, God is telling us something about the person and their role in His plan. So it is with Mary. Let us return to Luke 1:28. “thou that art highly favoured” is a translation of a single Greek word - “Kecharitomene”. What the angel said, then, was, “Hail, Kecharitomene, the Lord is with thee…”. What the angel is doing here is calling Mary by her title (much as Jesus was called Emmanuel). Without further adu, let me tell you what this word means. Kecharitomene comes from the Greek word ‘chartoo’, or *’*graced’. Kecharitomene, however, is the perfect passive participle, which shows a completeness with a permanent result. This specific word is unique to Luke 1:28, and we’re about to see why:

What the angel says (to belabor the point) is “Hail, one who has been *perfectly *and *completely *filled with the grace of God at some point in the past, with continued effects in the present, the Lord is with thee…”.
This is the revelation of the Immaculate Conception of Mary. Like Adam and Eve before her, Mary was created with a special grace, completely free from original sin - in other words, *perfectly *graced (i.e., without stain or blemish). Again, this was not her doing, but God, her Savior, doing this “great thing” for her (Luke 1:49). This is how we can say that Mary was sinless, yet still needed a Savior (Luke 1:47).
Now, re-read the angelic encounters in the NT and OT, and see that typically the angel will say, “Do not be afraid!” as the opening line. Here, however, we see something different. Here, we see the angel saying, “HAIL!”. Rather than a command, the angel comes to Mary with a request. Rather than intimidation, the angel comes to Mary a humble servant who greets her with a pledge of allegiance. Can you see how this 14 year old girl was greatly troubled at what manner of greeting this was (Luke 1:29)? She didn’t know God’s plan at that point! All she knew was this angel of the Lord was greeting her with a greeting the likes of which was never before uttered. Without this understanding, it’s easy to see how this kind of greeting could be troubling to a young Jewish girl! But WITH this understanding, we can now see exactly what God was revealing to us through His appointed messenger.

God bless you and keep you,
RyanL
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so if Mary is sinless, meaning she doesn’t need salvation thus do not need Christ.
 
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mesher:
so if Mary is sinless, meaning she doesn’t need salvation thus do not need Christ.
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Not true. Mary needed someone to save her from sin to begin with. She said that she “rejoices in God her savior.” Furthermore, in Gen. 3:15, God says that HE will put enmity between Satan and the woman, not her. Her sinlessness is not her own doing. It is from God.
 
MariaG,

Was John the Baptist sinless since he was filled with the Holy Ghost from his mother’s womb?
 
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mesher:
Mary being ever virgin…
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It fulfilled prophecy and is entirely biblical. Both the Catholic and Orthodox churches believe this as well as the original Protestant “reformers.” These topics have been beaten to death on these forums. Check out the main page www.catholic.com for the basics. Come back here if you still have questions. Next question please.
 
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