Catholic2003:
So to complicate matters, consider couple C, who use NFP to chart the cycle of the female, but who practice non-procreative (and thus sinful) sexual practices during the fertile period. To me, couples B and C are committing the same sin, that of abusing their sexual facilities to obtain pleasure in ways contrary to natural law. It is the means that is sinful here for both couples, not necessarily the end…
Hmmm. I am not aware that the a married couple who engages in marital relations, without the intent of procreation, would be committing a sin. I do not think one must have the intent of procreation, but rather, just be open to precreation.
In fact, I am reminded of a fellow who’s spouse uses contraception without his approval. He asked his confessor if he should abstain from relations with his wife even if she wants it, and the priest said “no, the act of intimacy is important to the marriage…the sin is not your sin. You merely have an obligation to make her aware of the Church’s teaching on the matter, as well as how you feel about it”. This exact scenario was played out again on Catholic Answers Live last week, and Jimmy Akin said the same thing.
Why do I bring this up? Well, it is obvious by those answers that it is understood the act would not be procreative in nature, because the wife is using contraception. Yet both parties said the husband was still permitted to engage with his wife. This confirms my belief (granted, merely trusting the priest and Jimmy Akin) that the Church does not teach one must have the intent of procreation in order to have that intimacy.
Sexual intimacy serves other purposes than just procreation. Obviously intimacy, the release of sexual tension for the man (I say the man because men frequently feel a need beyond the woman’s need), the showing the other person that his/her needs are important, and to make sure we are fulfilling our spouse’s needs, to name a few.
The key is to not abuse the gift, or else risk sinful behavior…much like food or alchohol: Food is for the purpose of nourishment, but can we say that to eat for the mere enjoyment of eating, not necessarily out of hunger, is sinful? Alchohol is medicinal, but shall we say to drink and be merry is sinful? I don’t think so.
In the context of a marriage open to the will and grace of God, sexual intimacy that is for reasons other than procreation is not necessarily inappropriate or sinful. It
can be, but it isn’t *necessarily * sinful.