I understand that TheAtheist on this forum has made a case for how followers of various religions – or even none – can be moral grounded on something like Natural Law Theory, but even that presumes the actual existence of proper ends for which human beings are to act and that it is in the very nature of those ends that makes it obligatory or incumbent upon all humans to act towards them. Yet, if no transcendent purpose for the universe exists and human beings exist for no real ends beyond those which we set for ourselves then it appears to be a rather thin sense of moral “obligation” that is being spoken of.
To clarify, I didn’t really make a case - i simply pointed out what seemed to be a contradiction.
Every person I’ve ever spoken to capable of giving an account of the philosophical and moral teachings of the Catholic Church eventually refer back to the Aristotlean-Thomistic tradition and its theological/philosophical understanding of morality and ethics.
Whether I or any other atheist or any other non-Thomist for that matter believe in it is irrelevant - because the Catholic Church does. In other words, while it might be possible to give an alternative account for our ethical codes, the Thomist position seems to be that we are in error in our understanding of the situation and that the
real reason why moral agency can exist in the non-Christian is because of Natural Law.
If i had to make an analogy - take the issue of Combustion and Oxidation.
Around the 17th century, a theory about a substance called Phlogiston came into vogue which purported to explain why metals rusted or how masses burned.
The theory was eventually replaced by the caloric theory of combustion, which itself was replaced by the mechanical theory of heat.
In all 3 cases, what you see is an attempt to give an account as to
explain a phenomenon. In no case did any of them deny that the phenomenon being evaluated was not occurring.
Now look back at the post I was responding to -
is the person giving an account for why atheists can be moral?
Or is he denying the possibility that atheists can be moral?
Either questions has consequences of course, but the latter choice instantly moves a segment of the population into a rather shall we say, sub-human level.
Its one thing to make a distinction in degree between two groups.
Quite another when one makes a distinction in kind… for as history bears out, human beings are quite uncivilized and less than charitable to those the do not acknowledge as part of their species/race/culture.