C
CutlerB
Guest
Dear community,
Here I go again about the Jehovah’s Witnesses. I have their book “Reasoning from the Scriptures” in German, and they address some arguments for the Deity of Christ in them, especially those concerning Titles of God applied to Christ. I need some refutations on these, as they are getting me quite confused and also as they will come up in discussions with a friend of mine (JW).
For any of you who have the book in digital or print, I’ll be translating the German version, so the wording may be different in the original English.
Here I go again about the Jehovah’s Witnesses. I have their book “Reasoning from the Scriptures” in German, and they address some arguments for the Deity of Christ in them, especially those concerning Titles of God applied to Christ. I need some refutations on these, as they are getting me quite confused and also as they will come up in discussions with a friend of mine (JW).
For any of you who have the book in digital or print, I’ll be translating the German version, so the wording may be different in the original English.
Texts, in which a Title of Jehovah is said be or is really applied to Jesus Christ
Alpha and Omega: Who does the title really belong to? (1) According to Revelation 1:8 to God Almighty. (2) Many translators of Revelation to Hebrew recognised that the One described in verse 8 was Jehovah and thus inserted the personal name of God. (3) Revelation 21:6, 7 shows that Christians, who prove to be victorious in faith, are „sons“ of Him, who is referred to as the Alpha und Omega. That is nowhere said about the relationship of spirit-born Christians and Jesus Christ. Jesus always called them his “brothers” (Heb. 2:11; Mat. 12:50; 25:40). These „brothers“ of Jesus are called „sons of God“ (Gal. 3:26; 4:6). …] (5) In Revelation 22:13 it is said about the Alpha and Omega it is “the First and the Last”, and this expression is applied to Jesus Christ in Rev 1:17, 18. But the expression “Apostle” is also applied to Jesus Christ as well as some of his disciples. Is it therefore really proof that it is the same person being talked about or that these persons are equal?(Heb. 3:1). All of this shows that the Title of “Alpha and Omega” refers to the Father and not to the Son.
Saviour: God is repeatedly called the “Saviour” in the Bible. In Isaiah 43:11, God even says: “There is no Saviour apart from me.” But Jesus Christ is also called Saviour in the Bible. Is that to mean that Jesus and God are the same? Certainly not. Titus 1:3, 4 speaks of “God, our Saviour” and then of “God, the Father, and Jesus Christ our Saviour”. Therefore both persons are saviours. Jude 25 explains this connection, when it says “God, who by our Lord Jesus Christ is our Saviour” (Italics ours) (See also Acts 13:23.) In Judges 3:9 the same Hebrew word as in Isaiah 43:11 (mōschía‛, translated „Saviour“ or „liberator“), is applied to Othniel ?], a judge in Israel, but that would certainly not mean that Othniel was Jehovah. If one reads Isaiah 43:1-12 in context, the meaning of verse 11 becomes clear: Jehovah alone brought salvation to Israel, not a god of the nations.
God: Jehovah says in Isaiah 43:10: „Before me there was created no other god, and so after me there will not be any.“ Does Jesus Christ therefore have to be Jehovah, because he is called “mighty god” in Isaiah 9:5 (NW 9:6)? once again the context says no. No idolatrous pagans had created a god before Jehovah, because there had been no one before Him. Neither could anybody create a living, true god in the future, who would be able to prophesy (Isa 46:9, 10). But that doesn’t mean that Jehovah never brought forth anyone, who was rightly called “god” (Ps 82:1, 6; Jn 1:1, NW) In Isaiah 10:21 Jehovah is called “mighty God” just as Jesus Christ is in Isaiah 9:5 (9:6 NW); but only He is called “God Almighty” (Gen 17:1)
If one finds a certain title in Scripture in more than one place, one should not deduce too quickly that it always refers to the same person. Otherwise one would have to consider Nebukadnezzar Jesus Christ, as both are called “lord of lords” (Dan 2:37; Rev 17:14) and that Jesus’ disciples were actually Jesus as both are called “light of the world” (Mat. 5:14; Jn. 8:12). We should therefore consider the context and other passages in Scripture, that use the same term.
Passages from the Hebrew Scriptures that refer undoubtably to Jehovah, but are applied by the inspired writers to Jesus Christ
Why are the words from Isaiah 40:3 quoted in John 1:23 and applied to the work of John the Baptist in preparing the way for* Jesus Christ*, when in Isaiah 40:3 the way is explicitly to be prepared for Jehovah? Because Jesus represented his Father. he came in the name of his Father and had the assurance that his Father would always be with him, because he did what was pleasing to the Father. (Jn 5:43; 8:29)
I know this is a lot of text, but maybe the points can be grouped. I hope somebody can show either their error or explain the Trinitarian position. Thank you in advance.Why are the words from Psalm 102:25-27 applied to the Son in Hebrews 1:10-12, when the psalmist obviously addressed them to God? Because it was no one else than the Son, through whom God accomplished the works of creation. (see Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30) 2 Samuel 7:14 is quoted twice in Hebrews 1:5b and applied to the Sohn of God. This text was fulfilled first in Solomon, but later in Jesus Christ, but that doesn’t mean that Jesus and Solomon were one and the same person. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and conducted a work, that was foreshaddowed by Solomon’s. (Lk 11:31)