C
Catholicdude92
Guest
I was talking to some of my baptist friends and we were talking about the idea of original sin. They admitted that the idea made sense and that we are born damaged by original sin. I followed the logic that Mary must have been immaculately conceived if she was to be the mother of Christ. They then told me that this in fact was not necessary as we inharate our sin though our “father’s seed” or “Seed of man” or something. Because Jesus’s father was God, he didn’t get the sin of man. I know they are the King James Bible types. couldn’t remember the bible verse, so i asked them if they could find it for me later.
In the meanwhile…has anyone ever heard this before?
What verse is this? do you know of any biblical proof against it? Thanks.
In the meanwhile…has anyone ever heard this before?