Hello Alan,
In order to have any meaningful discussion regarding of the doctrine of the Trinity with a Catholic person, one must engage Catholic presuppositions in addition to stating your own, which you do quite well above. Catholics would make a distinction between what one would call a true Biblical doctrine, say the Virgin Birth of Jesus, and a true doctrine of Christianity. One guiding presupposition of the Catholic is that full doctrinal Christianity did not march forth from the Apostles complete - exhaustively expounded, explained and understood. Nor, according to the Catholic, was all set down in writing in the Bible.
The position that the “formulation ‘one God in three Persons’ … has first claim to the title the Trinitarian dogma” is accurate as long as one is careful to include the italics. The soundness of the contention that “Among the Apostolic Fathers, there had been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or perspective…” hinges upon one’s threshold of what constitutes “remotely approaching”. From the Apostolic Fathers we have some quotes to offer, most of which could be construed to imply the deity of Jesus. The Apostolic Father Polycarp is said to have uttered what appears to be a praise of the Trinity:
“I praise you for all things, I bless you, I glorify you, along with the everlasting and heavenly Jesus Christ, your beloved Son, with whom, to you and the Holy Spirit, be glory both now and to all coming ages. Amen” (Martyrdom of Polycarp 14 [A.D. 155]).
Statements like these appear to become more explicit among the Early Church Fathers, some of whom were thought to have been taught by those who were taught by the Apostles:
“It was not angels, therefore, who made us nor who formed us, neither had angels power to make an image of God, nor anyone else. . . . For God did not stand in need of these in order to accomplish what he had himself determined with himself beforehand should be done, as if he did not possess his own hands. For with him [the Father] were always present the Word and Wisdom, the Son and the Spirit, by whom and in whom, freely and spontaneously, he made all things, to whom also he speaks, saying, ‘Let us make man in our image and likeness’ [Gen. 1:26]” (Against Heresies 4:20:1 [A.D. 189]).
Can one rationally contend that among the Apostolic Fathers “there had been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or perspective”? It doesn’t seem likely. But I do not claim that these and other statements represent the fullness of the Trinitarian doctrine among the Apostolic Fathers or Early Church Fathers. And while it is true that full Trinitarian doctrine was not formalized until the end of the 4th century, the doctrine of Christ’s deity, a component of Trinitarian doctrine which you as a Jehovah’s Witness reject, was itself formalized in the early 4th century – in 325 ad at the First Council of Nicea. But post-Apostolic formulation of true Christian doctrine is not a problem for me as a Catholic…and shouldn’t be for you as a Jehovah’s Witness.
The reason this is so is because Jehovah’s Witnesses do accept and hold as doctrine one particular post-Apostolic proclamation of the Catholic Church’s Magisterium – that of the correct composition of the New Testament canon. This was first formally stated at the Synod of Hippo in 393 ad and formally defined by the First Council of Carthage in 397 ad. No complete list exists among the writings of the Apostolic Fathers. Through the first few centuries of the Church’s life different teachers and communities make reference to differing, though not radically differing, New Testament canons – some rejecting books you and I now accept and others including some books, such as the Shepherd of Hermas, that we reject as being canonical. Regarding the NT canon, I believe you could also contend that it was unequivocally substantiated that “neither the Apostles nor any of the earliest of Christians had ever believed and/or been taught, nor, in turn, had ever sensed the need to defend any such radically new concept” of the Word of God. And yet, the NMT New Testament has the canon that wasn’t formalized by Catholic Church until the end of the 4th century. How is this so?
You quoted this from the Watch Tower magazine: “We do not object to changing our opinions, on any subject, or discarding former applications of prophecy, or any other scripture, when we see a good reason for the change,–in fact, it is as important that we should be willing to unlearn errors and mere traditions, as to learn truth." Is the composition of the NT canon in your NWT Bible a mere tradition that Jehovah’s Witnesses should be willing to discard if necessary or otherwise desirable? Given that the Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society claims no special charism of infallibility when teaching on matters of faith and morals, “applications of prophecy, or any other scripture”, is each Jehovah’s Witness free to decide for himself what the correct composition of the New Testament canon is? Why should the Jehovah’s Witness be bound to uphold the NT canon found in the NWT Bible? Why does the Jehovah’s Witness organization uphold the Catholic Church’s late 4th century doctrine of the composition of the NT canon? Do Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that the Catholic Church was protected from error in the late 4th century when it formalized this doctrine? If so, why then do they not also believe the Catholic Church was so protected when it formalized the doctrine of Christ’s divinity in 325 ad? Is it not utterly arbitrary to accept one while rejecting the other?
I look forward to reading any response you post and thank you for your time, Alan.
Bill G