You go too far. If you say that no-one spoke of the unitive aspect of the sexual act itself, then you might be right. This may well have been a later development.
Well, I’m glad you see that unitive aspect of sexuality was a product of later development. But honestly, do you really think it had to be “developed”? Isn’t it obvious from the act itself what it is? And that this was obvious to people long before Christianity took place?
Not to mention that this was obvious to “dissidents” during 1900 years of bishops teaching otherwise?
As I said, St. Thomas viewed the pleasure of sex as a good. In fact, in the state of original justice, sex would have been even MORE pleasurable, because man’s sensible faculties would be purer:
ccel.org/ccel/aquinas/summa.FP_Q98_A2.html (reply to objection 3)
Thomas here counters theological idea that sexual intercourse before original sin didn’t include pleasure. This was error of certain theologians (it seems, from link, St. Gregory of Nyssa). Because of stoic philosophy, they concluded that every pleasure is sinful, and since there is no sexual act without pleasure, sex must be sinful too. Now, before the fall of Adam and Eve, there was no sin- and therefore, no pleasure. But how was human kind to procreate? There were many explanations: one was that sex simply didn’t create pleasure, and was act of rational decision (“Let’s make another child next year”). The other, gregorian, that there was some other mean of procreation.
After the fall, Thomas says, people have this urge for pleasure in sexual intercourse which is “lust”. They are often victims of “immoderate intercourse”. However, what he really means by “immoderate intercourse” stays mysterious. It is quite possible that he follows the logic of Augustine, claiming each sexual act without intent of procreation is an act of excess.
To summarize, Thomas still sees pleasure as an issue, even in marriage. It is not evil in itself, as some before claimed, but from the fact it *always *comes from lust. To illustrate how differs from our present teaching, take into account that Thomas forbid “marital” kisses even when they don’t hinder the procreation. Since they can’t beget the child, the only reason why they are performed is to give pleasure to the couple- and such pleasure is mortal sin. Article 4:
newadvent.org/summa/3154.htm
Plus, sex was seen as good and just, even pure. For instance, St. Bernard: "They [bride and groom] share one inheritance, one table, one house, one bed, one flesh. For this she leaves her father and her mother and clings to her husband, and the two are one flesh. She is also commanded to forget her people and her father’s house so that he may desire her beauty.
This simply stresses marriage, and not marital act- as good. Even explanations such as “one bed” and “one flesh” can be used by stoic, since sharing the bed and becoming one flesh doesn’t interfere with the idea sex is only for procreation.
Again, the marriage bed is seen as a protection against lust, as you say, but it is seen as pure, a positive good, not as a tolerated lesser evil.
You have to understand, stoic philosopher can use the same sentence to defend his claims. Marriage bed is pure and positive, as long as people have sex only for procreation or in order to provide marriage debt.
Furthermore, I think it is possible to see in the view of sex as being an antidote to concupiscence, out of which arose the concept of the marriage debt, as a first step towards the proper understanding of sex: as good and virtuous not only in the purely negative way of controlling lust, but also as an expression and celebration of the couple’s love.
Only in context that their love becomes stronger if they “carry the burden of sex” together. Desire for marital embrace is seen as “problem in marriage” and spouses must be “happy to endure” this burden because of their love, which grows stronger in tolerance
The reality of the Church’s doctrine is development.
Certainly saying sex was only for procreation was not part of any true Christian development.