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IntegraCatholic
Guest
No, certainly not guilty of lust. How is using the marital act, which is proper to the married state, an act of lust? It’s secondary end is, in fact, for the remedy of concupiscence. Perhaps the spouse is in danger of falling into sin. Yes, mortal sin because it involves a case of justice in a grave matter.I guess I don’t understand…husband requests payment of debt, wife might be tired from taking care of kids, wife might have a headache, wife might just not be in the mood, and will have a difficult time getting in the mood. Husband requests* immediate *payment…and he is not guilty of lust…but wife is guilty of mortal sin. Mortal sin?
True, and he would be equally obligated. He is even more obligated (in a sense) because he has the obligation to render the debt if it is clear that the wife would like to engage in the marital act but is too shy to ask outright.By the way, the wife could request the debt paid as well, husband could not be in the mood.
A lot of people pay attention in pre-Cana, RCIA, confirmation classes, etc., and never hear the truth. Alas.I paid attention in pre-cana…I don’t remember ever hearing that.
No, it is not necessary to use such language for there to be an obligation.Do people even approach each other that way…“I demand my debt to be paid?”
Marriage is a contract. A covenant is a form of contract.Sounds like a contract…marriage is a covenant not a contract