OK…I’m not sure I follow the “patterns” logic going on here. If I am misinformed or misunderstood what I have read PLEASE let me know, but I am getting the feeling that some of the responses are leaning toward me making assumptions based on patterns and I don’t think that’s happened.
Here’s what I understand to be true regarding temps and CM observation:
a) there are 3 phases of the cycle.
b) only phase II is fertile
c) phase I begins on day 1 and ends at the first sign of CM
d) phase III begins on the 4th dry day after a DISTINCT and DEFINITIVE temp shift that is .4 degrees above LTL as determined by temps take at the same time EVERY morning.
e) for couples TTA the marital embrace CAN occur with a high rate of assurance during phase I and phase III.
Based on the previously stated “truths” (?) here’s my confusion:
a) DW and I did NOT engage during mensuration. Marital embrace occurred nearly 12 hours after AF ceased. However, it was believed that she was in phase I – infertile.
b) also…I have read in a previous thread here that the number of days of abstinence need only be 5 - 9 days. – this was mentioned b/c a poster had claimed that she found it was like 26 days of abstaining when TTA. She was told that was too much, BUT, based on the info I’ve been given right here we should be abstaining for 26 days???
c) I would temp and chart, DW would keep me posted on CM. NO pattern was assumed, only temp reading and CM observation.
From the tone of many of the reposes to my OP, I am getting the impression that many of you think I am a complete fool to think that charting temps and recording CM to determine the 3 phases is foolish. ???
HELP? Have I misread the info or misunderstood, or is this all just a mystery that NO-ONE really knows how to use?
Sorry if I sound argumentative or angry – I am neither. Just confused as to the accurate, reliable, dependable, and ease of a system that seems to be none of these things.
Thanks for listening…
