R
RealisticCatholic
Guest
I’m feeling kinda iffy about the language regarding “Mary didn’t have to die.”
When we say Mary was conceived without Original Sin, do we only mean she had the fullness of grace from conception on, or that she also suffered no consequences of Original Sin as well?
It would seem only the former, since even Christ suffered, and yet suffering is technically a consequence of Original Sin.
Another way to see it is to show that we all die, and yet technically Original Sin is taken away at Baptism.
In a sense, death is natural. The Fall of Man didn’t corrupt nature but rather forfeited preternatural and supernatural gifts God had bestowed on Adam and Eve.
So it seems most likely Mary got sick and suffered throughout her life, and even died. Not dying would have been a miracle, it seems — and not merely just because she was immaculately conceived.
But this is just how I currently understand it.
When we say Mary was conceived without Original Sin, do we only mean she had the fullness of grace from conception on, or that she also suffered no consequences of Original Sin as well?
It would seem only the former, since even Christ suffered, and yet suffering is technically a consequence of Original Sin.
Another way to see it is to show that we all die, and yet technically Original Sin is taken away at Baptism.
In a sense, death is natural. The Fall of Man didn’t corrupt nature but rather forfeited preternatural and supernatural gifts God had bestowed on Adam and Eve.
So it seems most likely Mary got sick and suffered throughout her life, and even died. Not dying would have been a miracle, it seems — and not merely just because she was immaculately conceived.
But this is just how I currently understand it.
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