D
Della
Guest
Every time I see someone argue against Christianity or the divinity of Christ and related topics using the idea that the Catholic Church rises and falls on Christ having to have fulfilled this or that OT prophecy I attempt to point out that that is not the case. My posts are often ignored/get lost because others are arguing finer points about some off topic subject. So, once and for all:
THE OT DOES NOT “LIST” PROPHECIES THE MESSIAH HAD TO FULFILL!!!
From an article in This Rock: The Witness of Isaiah 7:14:
I don’t know if there will be any responses in this thread, but I just had to get this out there for all to see and consider.
THE OT DOES NOT “LIST” PROPHECIES THE MESSIAH HAD TO FULFILL!!!
From an article in This Rock: The Witness of Isaiah 7:14:
In fact, the New Testament makes plain that the prophecies of the Messiah were not so much revealed by the Old Testament as they were hidden there. This is why Paul writes that the New Covenant was “veiled” until the gospel took away the veil (2 Cor 3:14). It is also why he declares the gospel was " not made known to men in other generations as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to God’s holy apostles and prophets" (Eph 3:5). Paul insists the deepest meaning of the Old Testament was seen only after the advent of Christ.
This is why nobody before the advent of Christ says, “Why, it’s plain from Scripture that the Messiah will be born of a virgin, rejected by the chief priests, handed over to Gentiles, crucified with thieves, rise, and ascend and that he will abrogate the circumcision demand for Gentiles as he breaks down the barrier between man and woman, slave and free, Jew and Gentile.” Even the disciples, close as they were to Jesus, make it clear they did not anticipate the Crucifixion, much less the Resurrection—even when Jesus rubbed their noses in it (Mark 9:9-10). As John says, they did not understand from Scripture that the Messiah had to rise from the dead, even though they stood in the mouth of the empty tomb gawking at his grave clothes (John 20:1–10). Yet these same apostles speak of the Resurrection as a “fulfillment” of the prophecies. What then do they mean if they do not mean the prophecies were “predictions” on which everybody based an understanding of the Messiah?
The writers of the NT were recognizing verses/passages in the OT that spoke to their message about our Our Lord not trying to prove he was the Messiah in the modern sense of the word. They saw the OT as a WITNESS to Christ not as a proof-text to upon which to base their faith in Christ.They mean that Christ fulfilled, brought to fruition, and was that toward which all the Old Testament was straining and pointing. They mean he was the one toward whom the Law and prophets were being pointed by the Spirit though when the sacred writers themselves did not know quite what they were pointing toward (1 Pet. 1:10–11). This is why the early Church never had difficulty with an issue that vexes modern minds: why the New Testament often takes Old Testament texts out of their immediate context and sees them as applicable to Christ. The early Church does not see the Old Testament as talking about something different from Christ but rather sees it in relationship to him. What appear to us to be separate themes and events in the Old Testament appear to the New Testament writers as so many spokes on a wheel all connected to the hub who is Christ.
I don’t know if there will be any responses in this thread, but I just had to get this out there for all to see and consider.