R
Rau
Guest
You continue to close your eyes to the fact that what you list in RED is the **Motivation **for the act (of contraception), while the Contraception itself is the MEANS. The Church states explicitly that such (good) motivation does not make the evil means of contraception ‘good’.And the contrary argument:
Actually, it should read:
“Take Drug - To Avoid Stroke, Heart Attack, Post-Partum Depression, Suicide, Serious Medical Injury, Death - Secondarily, Pregnancy Avoided.”
Yet, she chooses to contracept…that is the means she chooses…the motivation to contracept does not matter - this is explicit in church teaching.The wife wants children if death would not result. She is not using contraception nor undergoing a tubal ligation for selfish, self-interest, nor material reasons.
You make it sound as though it is “contraception” or “suicide” - pick one! It is not so. Abstinence - partial or complete is available.The whole point of the Church’s teaching against contraception is to promote the growth of the family unit. As it stands right now, she can no longer have children as pregnancy is a death wish. She is only pursuing these routes to avoid her own demise.
One may take medication anytime to cure medical conditions. Such medication to “improve skin complexion” with the added consequence of sterilising sexual relations is debatable indeed, and I have not advocated such a course. Contraception does not avoid strokes and the like - it aims to prevent pregnancy, which is a **MEANS **to avoid medical risks. Do you agree that the ends do not justify the means?How can one advocate that one may use contraceptives “for medical reasons” to avoid rather trivial illnesses, even “acne”, but you cannot use it to avoid the more grave medical conditions of stroke, heart attacks, suicide, even death that would surely result from a pregnancy? The logic does not follow.
Subject to medical advice about treatments, that may be correct.If we follow your logic, the wife would be left with no other choice aside from abstinence.
They are not obligated to have sex in the face of medical risks.This runs contrary to Church teaching as well. A marriage is the spiritual, mental, psychological, and (yes) sexual union of souls, male and female. The husband and wife become one. They are obligated to each other.
They are not denied any right to express love. Circumstances might mean their sexual expression is limited, possibly severely. What a dim view of marital love you have if you insist abstinence (which may in fact be partial, not total) assuredly leads to marriage breakdown! Would you pass the same sentence on a couple where the husband (say) lost sexual function through an injury?To deny the wife the ability to express her love to her husband would be issuing the verdict of separation most assuredly leading to divorce, to the complete detriment of the family, leading to further negative consequences: the break-up of the family, the negative effect on the family members (including young children), depression, anxiety, turmoil, even suicide.
I and others have pointed you to the Catechism which teaches the nature of intrinsic evils - always wrong to choose. It is you who close your eyes to what is taught, and argue in complete disregard for what the Catechism states!Approaching these matters from a legalistic twisting and turning of the Catechism…
Why do you believe that the Church specifically identifies those acts that are “intrinsically evil” and declares that they may never, not in any circumstance whatsoever, be moral?…What you have done here is taken a portion of the Catechism and issued an all-encompassing edict that does not necessarily apply to this particular circumstance.