Of course. At least, it was to guard them from error. I’m not sure about the “solely”–human motivations are mixed, and when you have people defending a religious monopoly that is the source of their wealth and power, obviously baser motives may be at work as well (as, of course, was the case on the other side when rulers conveniently embraced a mode of “reform” that allowed them to confiscate Church property!).
All translations are faulty, more or less. Readers should be aware that until relatively recently (the 20th century, I believe) a translation made directly from the Greek and Hebrew was considered “faulty” by the Catholic Church. Catholic translations, when authorized, were made from the Vulgate translation. A translation of a translation is not, by most standards, likely to be very reliable.
But setting that aside–the answer to poor translation is better translation. It just isn’t true that the Catholic Church only forbade “bad” translations. In late medieval England, no translation was authorized at all. Similarly, in 13th-century southern France (the first example I know of where translations were condemned), the Cathar translation (which in that case may well have been a very loose paraphrase with all kinds of apocryphal, heretical material inserted) was not countered by an orthodox translation to my knowledge. Rather, vernacular translations as a whole were forbidden by the Council of Toulouse.
Pius IV in 1564 laid out
more specific rules about vernacular Bible reading binding on the whole Church. It was allowed only by permission of Church authorities–that is to say, specific permission was required for a person whose confessor believed he or she was spiritually prepared for the practice. These restrictions were reaffirmed and redefined by later popes, but as the CE article I linked to above shows, only in 1836 was the reading of authorized,
Catholic versions of the Bible clearly allowed for the laity in general, without special permission.
Indeed. From earliest times until the second millennium, and again in the past couple centuries. But between the later Middle Ages and the eighteenth century, not so much.
Nope. The Catholic Encyclopedia clearly shows that you (and Keating, if he agrees with you) are wrong here. Authorized Catholic translations were absent altogether in late medieval England and some other times and places during the Middle Ages, and were allowed after 1564 only to those who had special permission to read them. This was not just about restricting bad translations. That’s an apologetics canard that won’t fly historically. The Catholic Church restricted “good” translations as well, out of a concern that reading the Bible might be spiritually dangerous.
Today, in contrast, the Church clearly affirms (as Quesnel affirmed 300 years ago and was condemned for affirming) that Scripture ought to be generally accessible to the laity. This is not because the Church no longer sees Scripture reading as dangerous. Of course it is. So is receiving the Eucharist. (And, of course, that was once restricted too in the sense that people weren’t encouraged to do it often out of a concern for inadequate preparation.) It’s dangerous to do it–it’s deadly not to.
Indeed I’m aware that there were vernacular translations in the late Middle Ages in most languages except for English, either approved or at least tolerated by the Church. The last two sentences don’t make sense, though. The 1525 translation, of part of the NT, was made by William Tyndale and was condemned as heretical. And there were three editions of the Bible in English, all based more or less on Tyndale’s work as completed by Coverdale (as indeed was the KJV), authorized by the English monarchy in 1539, 1568, and 1572 respectively (one under Henry after the break with Rome, and the other two under Elizabeth).
I’m not defending the Scriptures privately interpreted.
Edwin