R
Richard_Kastner
Guest
I gave those verses to show that we are saved by Jesus Christ and those verses are in the bible alone.Of course you did. You gave all those verses and believe it supports the Bible-Alone or else we would not be having this discussion.
I have never said that everything that God said or did was written in the bible. This is a point that you continually misrepresent. What I am saying is that all of the information that we need for our salvation is contained in the bible. If you don’t agree with this then it should be an easy task to provide the information contained in your tradition that is not in the bible that is necessary for our salvation.First show me Richard where the Bible recorded everything God said and did and binded to **written ** Words alone? Second,where does Jesus or the Apostles teach the Bible is the FINAL aribter and authority? I beg to differ:
Second,do you evven understand [T]radition…Richard?
Tradition in its broad sense provides normative understandings of biblical teaching. These normative understandings of Scripture are themselves Tradition in yet another sense of the word. For example, the Arians of the fourth century and the Jehovah’s Witnesses of today interpret the New Testament as teaching that, as the pre-existent Word, Jesus is inferior to God the Father, not equal to him. This interpretation is incompatible with the Tradition of the Church in its broad sense, which affirms the equality of the Word and God the Father. Tradition in its broad sense, in turn, provides a normative sense of the biblical faith to properly interpret and apply the texts misused by the Arians and the Witnesses.
So you are saying that tradition is an interpretive tool. A tool to help us interpret THE BIBLE and that it contains no doctrine at all. Which means it is merely a tool to interpret sola scriptura.In other words, Tradition allows us to say that, whatever the Bible means when it talks about Jesus as the pre-existent Word, it doesn’t mean what the Arians taught and the Witnesses still teach. Authentic Tradition has ruled out this interpretation.
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And notice that 2 Tim 3:15 makes no mention of the Bible-Alone doctrine or belief. It also
makes no mention of the NT and specifically what OT books! And why? Because the Jews had no set canon during St.Paul’s life and ministry. What scriptures is Paul referring to Richard?
Here it is " the Jews had no set canon during St.Paul’s life and ministry."No I did not say such a thing.
You reposted it above.
If I’m not mistaken the Torah is comprised of the Pentatuch or the first 5 books of the bible. Because all the Jews did not hold to the teachings of the Torah does not mean that they didn’t have it.And did all the Jews simply follow the Torah? Nope! The Pharisees did not stick only to the Torah as the Saducees did. Hence,tell me exactly what fixed canon did the Jews use during the time of Paul? What books were considered canonical and others not?
Didn’t say it was.Once again, 2 Tim 3:15 was not written in defense of the Bible-Alone that is pure conjecture on your part.
Where do you find that He taught anythig besides scripture is inspired?Exactly Richard! That verses says ALL,not ONLY Scripture is inspired by God. Tell me Richard where Jesus taught ONLY scripture would be inspired?
2Tim.3:16 says all scripture is inspired by God. Now you don’t have to believe this statement Nicea, but I do. The fact that all of the books of the new testament had not been written yet is irrelavant. The fact is that they are scripture and they are inspired. Do you think that the Holy Spirit did not know which writings would be considered scripture? Are you saying that the NT writings are not inspired?Wrong! 2 Tim 3:16 cannot include all of the NT because it was not even complete. You are telling me that by the time Paul wrote Timothy the NT was complete and considered canonical?