Why the infinite thing is noncontingent? Do you mind to elaborate?
Because if noncontingency can be best defined as “that which has their existence wholly and completely explicable through their essence”, then it therefore must be of such a nature to which it cannot be influenced by any externalities. To be as such, however, would require that you be immutably constant, and therefore not susceptible to any change. Change, however, is intrinsic to that which holds potentiality. So to be devoid of the elements change must mean to be devoid of potentiality. But if potentiality is infinite, the only way to be completely devoid of it would be with infinte actuality. As such, you must be infinite to be noncontingent.
Now I understand that to have the elements of change presupposes a dimension by which change occurs (time), and if time itself were changing, one may rightly ask the question “how could the dimension of change itself change without another dimension of change to explain such phenomenon” but I don’t think theres any logical necessity for this. For, I don’t see why change cannot be of a nature similar to water, where what occurs within it also is applicable to the substance itself (for example, wetness).
Time allows changes to happen. I agree that it doesn’t produce anything though but if you have two times each time can allow passage another one.
I’m not sure how that solves the problem of production STT. For if one time by itself can’t produce anything, why would multiplying it bring about any difference?
As I mentioned before two contingent being can sustain each other without any need for a Divine. Time1 allows time2 to change and vice versa.
Hmmm… doesn’t seem similar to circular reasoning? Where one thing is made possible through another thing, but that depends its existence on the previous thing? It doesn’t seem to me that this can be the case unless one is already in existence, but if that be the case, why appeal to a second time at all to explain the furst time?
I would like to add that the picture of God sustaining time leads to a regress too since time changes and time is needed for any change.
I don’t see it devolving into a regress were God to be eternal and thus ultimately unchanging, along with any act of creation. And if there is no change, it therefore means that its noncontriductory with the point you made about processes. Now if the point you’re making is that “sustaning” ultimately means that it could
not be sustained and thus there could be change, I’d simply say no. Not if the sustaining is eternal.