Please reference the post # as I believe you are misinterpreting what was said.
Post #388.
But, since the deutero’s were not separated, can you accept that they probably were considered inspired by the Pope.
I can accept that they definitely WERE considered inspired by the Pope. “Probably” does not even come into the mix.
But which Pope are you talking about - 5th century or 16th century?
I thought I’d answered that question and am trying to avoid answering the same questions repeatedly. But is it hard when so many people are participating in one conversation.
First, Catholics here have already acknowledged Hippo and Carthage were not infallible or ex-cathedral or dogmatic councils (not sure how that was worded)
Second, Catholics have acknowledged the Pope didn’t declare their canons dogma.
But you misunderstand “Dogma” when you make these statements to prove your point. The Church doesn’t go around willy-nilly proclaiming things Dogma, and only then believing in them.
One can use this reasoning to claim that:
a) The Catholic Church didn’t believe in or teach Transubstantiation until the 12 century.
or
b) The Catholic Church didn’t truly believe in or teach the Immaculate Conception till 1950.
You see my point? Even though the Council of Hippo and Carthage were not considered dogmatic, this is ony because there was not enough resistance to force the Pope to make it Dogmatic. If there was a strong enough opposition to the inspiration of the Deutero’s, then the Pope would have “sealed the Deal” and made it Dogmatic.
This level of opposition didn’t occur until the Protestant Reformation.
Third, the pope sanction Jerome’s disclaimer stating these books were good to be read in church for edification, etc., but **not for matters of doctrine **nor authority.
The Pope does not allow any readings in the Mass except for inspired works. Period. That’s one of the biggest reasons the Church put forth a Canon.
- If Hippo and Carthage set the canon, why is the canon declared at Trent slightly different? Should it not have been exactly the way Hippo and Carthage listed it?
Does it list different books? If its declared differently, in my opinion, its because some words were added or changed in order to put down opposition - opposition in a form that didn’t exist 1100 years earlier. I’m not saying there wasn’t dissent, but that the dissent may have put forth different arguments.
But you simply can’t say, “Different Wording, so they must not have been inspired in the 4th century”.