… I had always believed the false Catholic claim, until a few days ago, that Luther had removed these books from the Catholic Bible…
He didn’t remove them, but he put them in an appendix and treated them (as well as the Book of Revelation, Jude, James, & Hebrews) as though he treated all non-inspired texts. In other words, he said they were not part of “his canon” of Scripture. In essence, he did not consider them Scripture.
This is not a “Catholic claim” but what Lutherans themselves teach regarding Luther’s rejection of these texts.
I believed, from Catholic sources, Jerome placed the in the collection of books we call the Bible…
That’s odd, because Jerome did not “add them” but instead merely took that which was accepted by the Churches of Christ, translated them, studied them, commenting on them, etc., in accord with the commission he was given by Pope Damasus. There was Scripture before Jerome’s translations, as Origen and many other early fathers write about.
It was Pope Damasus (AD 328) who canonized these texts at a synod of Rome. Prior to the 4th century canonization of Scripture, there were various schools of thought regarding what books were considered inspired Scripture.
…sense Jerome had set them apart stating they were not inspired…
You’ll have to cite the reference from Jerome. My understanding is that he described them as not canonized by the Church (and I think at that point, they weren’t yet), but afterwords he called them “Scripture.” For example, Jerome explicitly describes Sirach as Scripture and uses Sirach for doctrinal defense. He wrote: "Does not the
SCRIPTURE say: ‘Burden not thyself above thy power’
SIRACH 13:2] (Jerome, To Eustochium, Epistle 108 (A.D. 404), in NPNF2, VI:207). He elsewhere uses the familiar words, “It is written” when citing Sircah in defense of doctrine (cf. Jerome,
Against Jovinianus,, Book 2, 3 NPNF2, VI:390). Doesn’t this indicate that whatever Jerome might have said earlier about Sirach, he understood at least by AD 404 that Sirach was indeed Scripture? He also cites passages from Wisdom and the larger version of Daniel similarly, quoting from them in the defense of doctrine (cf. Jerome,
To Paulinus, Epistle 58 (A.D. 395), in NPNF2, VI:119). He does the same in citing from Baruch (cf. Jerome,
To Paulinus, Epistle 58 (A.D. 395), in NPNF2, VI:119, also Jerome, *To Eustochium, *Epistle 31:2 (A.D. 384), in NPNF2, VI:45). He explicitly refers to Wisdom as “
Holy Scritpure” in another text (cf. Jerome, Letter 51, 6, 7, NPNF2, VI:87-8). How can he claim it to be Holy Scripture if it was not “inspired?” Jerome explicitly cites the deuterocanonicals as Scripture in the defense of doctrines, at times complaining about his opponent denying the authority of the book!
My summation today is this:
*These books have always been read in the church (I have never disagreed on that point)
*These books were never universally considered inspired until Trent (I always believed that since my “extra books” discovery)
I disagree. The term “universally” means that they were not merely “regionally” considered inspired. It doesn’t mean that every person believed them to be inspired. Even after Trent, no book is “universally considered inspired.”
The Ecumenical Council of Florence shows that these texts were universally considered inspired in the proper sense.
continued…