Omitting Gloria Patri in Rosary during Passiontide

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Is it acceptable to omit the Gloria Patri’s in the Rosary during Passiontide, as is the practice in the 1962 Missal?
 
I’m not sure why you would want to.
Christ is gloriously risen…and we know it.
To God be all the glory. Regardless of what the date is.
:twocents:
 
No, you do say the Glory Be during the rosary even during Passiontide. It is only omitted during formal prayers of the Church, such as the Mass or the Liturgy of the Hours.
 
Traditionally, the Glory Be is omitted in the Mass during Passiontide, so why not the Rosary?
I don’t know. It’s such a beautiful prayer.
God favors prayers well prayed. Not prayers omitted, imho.
God bless you and keep you.
 
No, you do say the Glory Be during the rosary even during Passiontide. It is only omitted during formal prayers of the Church, such as the Mass or the Liturgy of the Hours.
But then inconsistencies come up, and the whole point of the omission is defeated.
 
youtu.be/rh7YK3Ls2ng

The above video states the connection between the Rosary and the Mass. That is why it must be consistent. And why is it not an obvious inconsistency?
That doesn’t really prove anything.

The rubrics of the Mass state that the Gloria Patri is not to be sung or said during Passiontide, but it does not say anything about that meaning that that prayer is completely banned. It is not logically consistent to assume that it does mean that.

Furthermore, I cannot find any source that says that it is traditional Catholic custom to omit the “Glory Be” during the rosary at any time. Can you?
 
That doesn’t really prove anything.

The rubrics of the Mass state that the Gloria Patri is not to be sung or said during Passiontide, but it does not say anything about that meaning that that prayer is completely banned. It is not logically consistent to assume that it does mean that.

Furthermore, I cannot find any source that says that it is traditional Catholic custom to omit the “Glory Be” during the rosary at any time. Can you?
It does prove that there is a relation.

A source is not needed because it was assumed because everyone attended the Tridentine Mass at the time the rosary was created? Now, keep in mind, the rosary doesn’t have official rubrics.
 
I think the key point here is that the Mass, and the Divine Office, are liturgy.

The Rosary is not.
 
But then the entire omission loses its effect. The assumptions naturally follow.
I disagree. The “effect” is simply that the Gloria Patri is not said or sung in the liturgy in the two weeks before Easter. Whether or not we omit it during private prayer has no bearing or effect on the liturgy.
 
I disagree. The “effect” is simply that the Gloria Patri is not said or sung in the liturgy in the two weeks before Easter. Whether or not we omit it during private prayer has no bearing or effect on the liturgy.
Then doesn’t the label “private prayer” say that we may omit it? The effect is for an entire omission.
 
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