S
Steadfast
Guest
When asked about priestly and episcopal celibacy in the history of the church, Karl said that, although there were instances of married clergy very early on, upon ordination or elevation they agreed to live celibately. I believe the word he actually used was in “continence”; i.e. having agreed not to have conjugal relations with their spouses.
My question has to do with the verification of this. Where can I find some substantiation for this claim; i.e. that they remian “continent” after they became priests and/or bishops?
Thanks,
Mike %between%
My question has to do with the verification of this. Where can I find some substantiation for this claim; i.e. that they remian “continent” after they became priests and/or bishops?
Thanks,
Mike %between%