T
ThePuppyTurtle
Guest
Alright so a little less than a year ago a person, we shall call Kevin, uploaded a YouTube video which was an extremely personal attack on another man we’ll call Ted. Ted, in order to get the video off of YouTube, filed a false copyright infringement claim called a DMCA. Now Ted evidently thought it was a valid claim, but it wasn’t. I, thinking this act unacceptable, without watching the video, though having heard it was pretty mean, I mirrored the video (I uploaded it to my own channel.) I later watched it some time after It was DMCA’ed on my channel too. I saw it was pretty mean, but left it up, as well as the mediafire link for someone to download and mirror if they wanted to. Also in the ensuing scandal I insulted Ted too, pretty badly, 2ed worst ever that I recall (worst being the guy I told I wanted to die and be eaten by maggots). I later took all of the videos related to the scandal down,
I’ve since released a general apology to all persons I’ve insulted in arguments. In the description I’ve tacked on an apology to Ted as well, But the apology itself, may or may not technically include him, my personal suspicion being it does. (My video was a general apology to some Atheists, and all UFOists and Creationists, the latter category i suspect to include Ted, but am not in any way sure.)
But here’s my question, The apology in the description is not in the same medium, and is one much less likely to be seen, especially considering I changed the description to include Ted after the first and largest wave of views, my subscribers, had hit. So is the obligation to apologize in an “equally public” fashion met? (The description is publicly available, in a sense more so because the insulting videos were only public for some months while the apology will likely remain forever. Though I guess some mirrors of my videos will be around forever too, unless those persons who mirrored them abide my requests to take them down. But other mirrors of the ORIGINAL video, which exist possibly because of me, will be up forever.)
If Not, do I need to drag back out drama that occurred in September or late August-September of 2011?
I’ve since released a general apology to all persons I’ve insulted in arguments. In the description I’ve tacked on an apology to Ted as well, But the apology itself, may or may not technically include him, my personal suspicion being it does. (My video was a general apology to some Atheists, and all UFOists and Creationists, the latter category i suspect to include Ted, but am not in any way sure.)
But here’s my question, The apology in the description is not in the same medium, and is one much less likely to be seen, especially considering I changed the description to include Ted after the first and largest wave of views, my subscribers, had hit. So is the obligation to apologize in an “equally public” fashion met? (The description is publicly available, in a sense more so because the insulting videos were only public for some months while the apology will likely remain forever. Though I guess some mirrors of my videos will be around forever too, unless those persons who mirrored them abide my requests to take them down. But other mirrors of the ORIGINAL video, which exist possibly because of me, will be up forever.)
If Not, do I need to drag back out drama that occurred in September or late August-September of 2011?