On refutation of the Unmoved Mover

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I’m a young, foreign apologist, and I’ve become intrigued with A-T metaphysics after reading Feser’s “The Last Superstition”.

Sorry if this a simple question, but I’m a newbie at Thomism and it’s one I’ve been confronted with as a “refutation” of Aristotelian metaphysics and Aquinas’ first mover:

For example, particles wouldn’t gain mass without the Higgs boson. The consequence is that all particles is moving at the speed of light. Movement seem to be the fundamental condition.

But the most important argument is supposedly this: Human logic is provedly subjective, non-intutive and highly fallible. You can rarely conlude on reality, based on philosophy alone. You can be easily mistanken om premises.

Nothing in logical and physical state aren’t neccesarily alike. Standstill isn’t neccesarily a fundamental condition.

Time is likey to be an emergent property, which makes all arguments on events that led to the origin of the universe based on understanding something that’s presently outside all human cognitive faculty to understand.
I have a suggestion. When talking to people do not use idioms like " A-T metaphysics. "
Your reader then has to struggle with doubt concerning his understanding of what " A-T metaphysics " is. I could make the assumption that you are speaking about Aristotelian, Thomistic metaphysics, but I may be wrong. And, even now I still am not positive that that is what you mean. Always define your terms when there is a possibility for missinterpretation.

Linus2nd
 
Is the construct in base 10 mathematics 1 + 1 = 2 true or not? Not relative to other contructs but to itself.
What does the symbol “+” mean. In Chinese it stands for the number ten (十). Also in Chinese, the symbol “=” stands for the number two (二).

Is the meaning of symbols absolute? If you are using non-absolute symbols then how can you express an Absolute Truth?

The truth or falsity of the statement “1 + 1 = 2” depends on the non-absolute meaning of the symbols used.
It IS either True or is False.
But it is not either Absolutely True or Absolutely False. It is only relatively true or relatively false, depending on many different extraneous things outside the group of symbols themselves. Its truth or falsity is not intrinsic to the statement, but depends on a large number of extrinsic factors. In set theory, 1 + 1 = 2 is false, and 1 + 1 = 1 is true.
Your switching to other base numbering is a straw man of switch and bait.
No. It was merely a simple way of showing that the truth of the statement was not intrinsic to the statement, but relied on external assumptions. Change those assumptions, without changing the statement, and the truth value of the statement changes. The truth or falsity of the statement is not intrinsic to the statement, as it would be for an Absolute Truth. An Absolute Truth is true in all times and in all circumstances. The statement “1 + 1 = 2” fails that test.

rossum
 
Your problem is that you do not trust your own mind to reveal the world outside your mind as it actually exists.
Of course I do not. My senses are for from perfect and all I can know of the external world is a series of electrical impulses arriving on my sensory nerves. My eyes are less sensitive than the eyes of an eagle, so I see less of the world that an eagle. I smell less of the world than a dog. I hear less of the world than a bat. I cannot even detect polarized light, like a bee. There is a huge amount of the world that I cannot, and never will be able to sense.

I can never know the external world as it actually exists. All I can know is the part of that world that my senses can detect.

Even then, I make errors. I see water when it is just a mirage. The water is not in the real world, it is purely in my mind.

My senses are imperfect, so I can at best have an imperfect image of the real world. It is an error to think that what I am sensing is “real”, as opposed to an imperfect reflection of what is real. What we sense is about as “real” as the water we sense in a mirage.

rossum
 
Of course I do not. My senses are for from perfect and all I can know of the external world is a series of electrical impulses arriving on my sensory nerves. My eyes are less sensitive than the eyes of an eagle, so I see less of the world that an eagle. I smell less of the world than a dog. I hear less of the world than a bat. I cannot even detect polarized light, like a bee. There is a huge amount of the world that I cannot, and never will be able to sense.

I can never know the external world as it actually exists. All I can know is the part of that world that my senses can detect.

Even then, I make errors. I see water when it is just a mirage. The water is not in the real world, it is purely in my mind.

My senses are imperfect, so I can at best have an imperfect image of the real world. It is an error to think that what I am sensing is “real”, as opposed to an imperfect reflection of what is real. What we sense is about as “real” as the water we sense in a mirage.

rossum
I think you are equivocating. I am not speaking of " mirages, " that is the psychological effect of atmospheric conditions. Normal interaction with the universe outside our minds does not involve mirages. We see or otherwise sense it and our intellect affirms that what we see is a part of the real world. Otherwise we could not live. And of course we do not know the entire universe, at once. Neither of these conditions, nor personal psychological disorders invalidates whagt I said.

What you have said in this thread and others indicate that you think we can never know reality outside the mind. That is a condition that cannot be true. If it were the human race could never have gotten off the ground.

Linus2nd
 
What does the symbol “+” mean. In Chinese it stands for the number ten (十). Also in Chinese, the symbol “=” stands for the number two (二).

Is the meaning of symbols absolute? If you are using non-absolute symbols then how can you express an Absolute Truth?

The truth or falsity of the statement “1 + 1 = 2” depends on the non-absolute meaning of the symbols used.

But it is not either Absolutely True or Absolutely False. It is only relatively true or relatively false, depending on many different extraneous things outside the group of symbols themselves. Its truth or falsity is not intrinsic to the statement, but depends on a large number of extrinsic factors. In set theory, 1 + 1 = 2 is false, and 1 + 1 = 1 is true.
The symbols do not have absolute meaning (just like sound waves and graphite marks on paper have no intrinsic meaning), but the statement 1+1=2 does reflect a truth about the universe (and it reflects that truth whether anyone is thinking about it or not).

Maybe we redefine numbers to be represented by a series of the same symbol (&), addition to be represented by @, and equality to be represented by |. Then we have 1 + 1 = 2 (in the system of arithmetic) and & @ & | && (in our modified system of arithmetic). I’d say that you are right that there is not absolute meaning in the symbols, but I’d also say that each statement is expressing the same fact (that if you take a single unit and another unit you, combined, have “2” units, however you choose to mathematically, symbolically, or linguistically represent what “2” means). So while our understanding of what the symbols mean is dependent on extrinsic factors, the truth value of each proposition is independent of what humans decide: it’s true whether we know or not, and it’s true whether we want it to be true or not.
 
I think you are equivocating. I am not speaking of " mirages, " that is the psychological effect of atmospheric conditions. Normal interaction with the universe outside our minds does not involve mirages.
It does, if you think about it carefully. We cannot sense the full detail of any object in the real world – our imperfect senses always leave us with incomplete information. This is unavoidable. We cannot see in the ultra violet and we cannot detect polarization. We are always working with incomplete information so we are always working with an incomplete internal model of what exists outside us.

That model is good enough for us to survive, but it is a gross error to think that the model is complete. Our internal model is only a model, it is not the reality. All we can know is the model; we can never know the reality.
We see or otherwise sense it and our intellect affirms that what we see is a part of the real world. Otherwise we could not live.
I prefer to say a model of the real world. The model is good enough to enable our survival, but that is as far as it goes.
What you have said in this thread and others indicate that you think we can never know reality outside the mind.
Correct. It is a common mistake to think that our internal model actually is the reality outside our mind. It isn’t – it is an internal model.

rossum
 
The symbols do not have absolute meaning (just like sound waves and graphite marks on paper have no intrinsic meaning), but the statement 1+1=2 does reflect a truth about the universe (and it reflects that truth whether anyone is thinking about it or not).
It does reflect a truth, but the truth it reflects is not an Absolute Truth, but a relative truth. The truth of the statement is relative to the non-absolute meaning assigned to the symbols used.

Is the following statement true of false?

один плюс один равно два

You cannot tell merely from the statement itself. In English the statement is meaningless and is neither true nor false. You have to go outside the statement to determine its truth value. The statement is not self-contained and so cannot be Absolute. It is a relative statement, relative to the meaning assigned to the characters.
So while our understanding of what the symbols mean is dependent on extrinsic factors, the truth value of each proposition is independent of what humans decide: it’s true whether we know or not, and it’s true whether we want it to be true or not.
I disagree. How can we know what is being said if we don’t know what the characters, or the language, means? If we cannot determine the actual statement then we cannot assign a truth value to it. At best we can say “meaningless” or “unknown”.

Here is a statement using the standard Latin alphabet:

nyer zhir 'khrid mdzad gang yin dang 'gro la phan par byed
rnams lam shes nyid kyis 'jig rten don sgrub mdzad pa gang
gang dang yang dag ldan pas thub rnams rnam pa kun ldan

However, it is not in English. Is it Absolutely True? How can you tell from the statement itself?

Here is a hint for both: Gur svefg cvrpr hfrf Plevyyvp punenpgref naq vf va Ehffvna. Gur frpbaq cvrpr hfrf Yngva punenpgref naq vf va Gvorgna.

Can you read the hint? What external knowledge, not included in the hint, did you use to read the hint?

rossum
 
This thread contains the worst collection of “philosophizing dribble” I’ve ever seen.

God help the young person reading this thread and looking for evidence of God! :eek:

It’s very simple, folks:

The universe could not have existed through an infinite past, had to start, couldn’t start itself, and had to be started by God.

Looked at another way:

There is either God and the universe
or God alone
but there can’t be the universe alone.
 
The universe could not have existed through an infinite past because every event happened a finite time ago.
Likewise every integer has a finite magnitude (‘distance’ from zero) - would you therefore conclude that there is a finite number of integers, or that there must be a ‘start’ to the negative integers?
 
Likewise every integer has a finite magnitude (‘distance’ from zero) - would you therefore conclude that there is a finite number of integers, or that there must be a ‘start’ to the negative integers?
Your argument is helped somewhat by the fact that you fail to distinguish between actual and potential infinite values. Numbers are only potentially infinite. No one has “actually” counted to infinity.

The point is that it is impossible to count TO infinity since you would never get there or else it would not actually be infinity. Similarly it is impossible to count FROM infinity, since if you actually do get to the zero value (now) you could not have started at infinity, but rather at some random finite value.

Since we exist “now” (0 in time value,) there could not have been an infinite number of time segments or infinite time in the sequence preceding now because if there were, we would be infinitely later in time than any distinct “starting place” since there would be no distinct starting place.
 
It’s very simple, folks:

The universe could not have existed through an infinite past, had to start, couldn’t start itself, and had to be started by God.
Let’s transpose that into a slightly different key:

It’s very simple, folks:

YHWH could not have existed through an infinite past, had to start, couldn’t start Himself, and had to be started by the Dharmakaya.

When you provide no evidence for your statements it is very easy to change them to mean something else.

rossum
 
The point is that it is impossible to count TO infinity since you would never get there or else it would not actually be infinity.
That depends on where you start from. If you start from infinity - 10 then you can count to infinity in ten steps.
Since we exist “now” (0 in time value,) there could not have been an infinite number of time segments or infinite time in the sequence preceding now because if there were, we would be infinitely later in time than any distinct “starting place” since there would be no distinct starting place.
So, the eternal God, who has existed for infinite time segments prior to now cannot have created the universe, since there are an infinite number of time segments between the origin of God and the origin of the universe.

An eternal God cannot act now because an eternal God can never reach now, He is still transitioning across all those infinite time segments needed to get to now.

rossum
 
That depends on where you start from. If you start from infinity - 10 then you can count to infinity in ten steps.

So, the eternal God, who has existed for infinite time segments prior to now cannot have created the universe, since there are an infinite number of time segments between the origin of God and the origin of the universe.

An eternal God cannot act now because an eternal God can never reach now, He is still transitioning across all those infinite time segments needed to get to now.

rossum
Re: bold above: This is strawman. God exists, transendent of time.
 
It does, if you think about it carefully. We cannot sense the full detail of any object in the real world – our imperfect senses always leave us with incomplete information. This is unavoidable. We cannot see in the ultra violet and we cannot detect polarization. We are always working with incomplete information so we are always working with an incomplete internal model of what exists outside us.

That model is good enough for us to survive, but it is a gross error to think that the model is complete. Our internal model is only a model, it is not the reality. All we can know is the model; we can never know the reality.

I prefer to say a model of the real world. The model is good enough to enable our survival, but that is as far as it goes.

Correct. It is a common mistake to think that our internal model actually is the reality outside our mind. It isn’t – it is an internal model.

rossum
Of course the image in our mind is a different thing than the reality outside our mind but it is a true image of the reality. That does not mean we know all there is to know about that external reality. Science shows and has demonstrated that we can lean much more than what is revealed by the image which we abstract from the external reality. But these refinements or scientific precisions are themselves images of that reality, in depth images. The reality is more fully revealed as our scientific precisions advance. So there e is a constant, but more revealing image of reality. Each image is a true image but at ever more refined levels of reality’s existence. So our mind is always revealing the true reality. Can we make errors? Of course. That does not mean we do not know reality as it is. To make that conclusion is unreasonable in the extreme, it is an equivocation.

Linus2nd
 
Your argument is helped somewhat by the fact that you fail to distinguish between actual and potential infinite values. Numbers are only potentially infinite. No one has “actually” counted to infinity.
The original argument also failed to distinguish - so the counterargument succeeds. In other words the same argument you use to dismiss infinite past time would dismiss infinite negative integers, by the same logic that any two actual integers are seperated by a finite interval. There doesn’t have to be an ‘actual’ integer ‘minus infinity’ just as there does not have to be an ‘actual’ moment ‘minus infinity’.

It is, in other words, wrong. Or at least incomplete.

You can of course try to complete it - for example if you want to argue that there cannot be an infinite past interval as it would take an infinite amount of time to traverse that interval - akin to taking an infinite amount of time to ‘count’ from minus infinity to zero - then:
a) we have an infinite amount of time to do so. Any interval is exactly as long as it is. 🤷
b) you are assuming without proof that something has to traverse that interval. This is like saying that there cannot be infinite integers because it would take an infinite amount of time to count them. :hmmm:
Since we exist “now” (0 in time value,) there could not have been an infinite number of time segments or infinite time in the sequence preceding now because if there were, we would be infinitely later in time than any distinct “starting place” since there would be no distinct starting place.
No - if there is no distinct starting place then it makes no sense to talk about how much later in time from it we are.
 
That depends on where you start from. If you start from infinity - 10 then you can count to infinity in ten steps.
Let me get this straight…

You are proposing that infinity is an actual discrete quantity that you can merely take away 10 from and be at a finite point. That would mean infinity is a finite point +10 away from that point. So infinity would be finite, then?
So, the eternal God, who has existed for infinite time segments prior to now cannot have created the universe, since there are an infinite number of time segments between the origin of God and the origin of the universe.
Presuming that God is in some timeframe, which, as far as I know, is not what the word eternal (outside of any time constraints) means. No one is claiming eternal means a infinite number of time segments except, perhaps, you. Why do you suppose the idea of an actual infinite being impossible was even brought up?

Your argument amounts to God is trapped in infinite time and therefore he could not exist or have created the universe. But, no one has conceded God is in infinite time precisely because infinite time is an illogical concept.
An eternal God cannot act now because an eternal God can never reach now, He is still transitioning across all those infinite time segments needed to get to now.

rossum
Again, eternal does not mean contrained by a time sequence no matter how long. Eternal means outside of the constraints of time altogether.
 
Of course the image in our mind is a different thing than the reality outside our mind but it is a true image of the reality.
How can it be a “true image” when we both agree that it is “different” and lacks information? If it lacks information then it falls short of being a true image.

If we lack information of the details of the decimal places, then we may thing that 1.02+ 2.22 = 3. Would that be a true image of the reality?
Can we make errors? Of course. That does not mean we do not know reality as it is.
We disagree. It is not just errors, it is the intrinsic loss of information involved in our sense perceptions. We cannot see ultra violet because our eyes do not register light at that frequency. We cannot hear high pitched sounds like a bat can because our ears do not register those frequencies. We cannot know reality “as it is” because we are lacking complete information about that reality.

rossum
 
Presuming that God is in some timeframe, which, as far as I know, is not what the word eternal (outside of any time constraints) means.
If God is not in a timeframe, the you cannot tell for how long He has existed, because there is no frame against which to measure. In the absence of a timeframe a second cannot be distinguished from a billion years. Unless you can actually measure, you cannot compare durations.
No one is claiming eternal means a infinite number of time segments except, perhaps, you.
See:
Since we exist “now” (0 in time value,) there could not have been an infinite number of time segments or infinite time in the sequence preceding now because if there were, we would be infinitely later in time than any distinct “starting place” since there would be no distinct starting place. (emphasis added)
rossum
 
How can it be a “true image” when we both agree that it is “different” and lacks information? If it lacks information then it falls short of being a true image.

If we lack information of the details of the decimal places, then we may thing that 1.02+ 2.22 = 3. Would that be a true image of the reality?

We disagree. It is not just errors, it is the intrinsic loss of information involved in our sense perceptions. We cannot see ultra violet because our eyes do not register light at that frequency. We cannot hear high pitched sounds like a bat can because our ears do not register those frequencies. We cannot know reality “as it is” because we are lacking complete information about that reality.

rossum
By " image " I do not necessarily mean a photographic image, necessarily. Our mind refines what we are receiving. First there is an image, Then the mind goes to work analyzing the information coming in. We begin to form concepts which tell us more and more about the external reality. All of this refines the meaning of the image in relation to the external reality. So we do know external reality as far as our experience and science allow us. To counter that we do not know reality as it is is an equivocation, splitting of hairs. We live in a real world, we know it, there is nothing unreal about it, though our knowledge is always open to improvement.

Linus2nd
 
Likewise every integer has a finite magnitude (‘distance’ from zero) - would you therefore conclude that there is a finite number of integers, or that there must be a ‘start’ to the negative integers?
Numbers don’t exist. They are theoretical concepts we use to make sense of the world, but they are not the real world.

This is a very old idea that has been discussed many times on this forum over the years. You’re a Johnny-come-lately.
 
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