On refutation of the Unmoved Mover

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From rossum’s post:
Originally Posted by empther View Post
It’s very simple, folks:
The universe could not have existed through an infinite past, had to start, couldn’t start itself, and had to be started by God.
Let’s transpose that into a slightly different key:
It’s very simple, folks:

YHWH could not have existed through an infinite past, had to start, couldn’t start Himself, and had to be started by the Dharmakaya.
When you provide no evidence for your statements it is very easy to change them to mean something else.

rossum

God could not have existed through an infinite past. He doesn’t exist in time at all. He is outside time. He didn’t start. He is the Necessary Being. He is absolutely unchanging and eternal.
God’s mode of existence is completely different from that of the universe and anything in it, and comparing the universe’s existence to God’s make no sense at all.

These ideas have been discussed hundreds of times on this forum over the years, by myself and many others.
 
It does reflect a truth, but the truth it reflects is not an Absolute Truth, but a relative truth. The truth of the statement is relative to the non-absolute meaning assigned to the symbols used.
This is false. The fact that a proposition is expressed using non-absolute symbols does not make the proposition itself non-absolute. For instance, if I translate a proposition in English into French, both are expressing the same proposition, even though the symbols used are not the same. (By analogy, if you convert a distance from meters to centimeters, it is still the same distance even though it is represented differently.)
Is the following statement true of false?

один плюс один равно два

You cannot tell merely from the statement itself. In English the statement is meaningless and is neither true nor false. You have to go outside the statement to determine its truth value. The statement is not self-contained and so cannot be Absolute. It is a relative statement, relative to the meaning assigned to the characters.
Well, I would not claim to be able to evaluate a proposition stated in a language I don’t know. I think you are confusing ontology and epistemology: I don’t have a way of figuring out if the statement is absolutely true, but that does not mean that it is not absolutely true. (It could also be false.)
I disagree. How can we know what is being said if we don’t know what the characters, or the language, means? If we cannot determine the actual statement then we cannot assign a truth value to it. At best we can say “meaningless” or “unknown”.
You are saying “How can we know what is being said…” There may be statements which we are unable to assign a truth value to, but that doesn’t mean that statements cannot be true. First, because that’s a non-sequitur. And second because, as I’ve mentioned before, I think there are statements that are absolutely true (or at least express something absolutely true).

I would honestly take the relativity of symbols to support the fact that propositions can express things that are absolutely true. The fact that I can express some mathematical statement equivalently using other symbols would gesture toward the fact that the underlying logic is consistent and absolute regardless of the mode of expression.

The other issue is that the propositional content of statements need not even be understood syntactically. I might say something like, “The painting is hanging on the wall,” to one of my friends (and let’s assume that the painting is, in fact, hanging on the wall), but he will be able to think about the painting’s position without recourse to a little English voice in his head. Since he is thinking about the painting being on the wall, and my statement was about the painting’s being on the wall, the statement is expressing the same thing that he is thinking nonlinguistically (or at least not in English), so there must be some distinction between propositional content and the symbols used to express it.
Can you read the hint? What external knowledge, not included in the hint, did you use to read the hint?
These are basically further confusions between epistemology and ontology. My not knowing whether a statement is true or false does not mean that it is not absolutely true.

I think the issue of “external knowledge” and a statement’s “self-containment” is a red herring. I don’t see how those would be necessary for “absolute truth.”
 
It’s very simple, folks:

The universe could not have existed through an infinite past, had to start, couldn’t start itself, and had to be started by God.
I feel like this will (and possibly already has) lead to some needless, irrelevant debate, since the argument for the Unmoved Mover does not rely on an infinite past being impossible.
 
riginally Posted by empther View Post
It’s very simple, folks:
The universe could not have existed through an infinite past, had to start, couldn’t start itself, and had to be started by God.
I feel like this will (and possibly already has) lead to some needless, irrelevant debate, since the argument for the Unmoved Mover does not rely on an infinite past being impossible.

Apparently Aquinas would disagree.
I’d hate to go against him.
 
Apparently Aquinas would disagree.
I’d hate to go against him.
Poly’ is correct. Thomas was convinced that the creation of the universe in time was strictly a matter of Faith. S.T., Part 1, ques. 46, arts 1-3. This why he designed the Five Ways so that the existence of God can be proven starting from an eternally existing universe or one beginning in time.

Linus2nd
 
God could not have existed through an infinite past. He doesn’t exist in time at all. He is outside time. He didn’t start. He is the Necessary Being. He is absolutely unchanging and eternal.
God’s mode of existence is completely different from that of the universe and anything in it, and comparing the universe’s existence to God’s make no sense at all.
And again we have assertions not backed up by evidence:

The Dharmakaya could not have existed through an infinite past. It doesn’t exist in time at all. It is outside time. It didn’t start. It is the Necessary Being. It is absolutely unchanging and eternal.

The Dharmakaya’s mode of existence is completely different from that of the universe and anything in it, and comparing the universe’s existence to the Dharmakaya’s make no sense at all.

See? Statements made without evidence can be applied to many very different cases. Are you convinced of the properties of the Dharmakaya? That tells you just how convincing your post was.

rossum
 
One obvious problem of the argument is that the unmoved mover could be impersonal.

And atheists generally argue that everything pope into existence without a cause, because causality is only valid in the domain whereone can observe it to always occur.

lotharlorraine.wordpress.com/2013/08/04/deconstructing-the-popular-use-of-occams-razor/

I think this argument is valid, and I’ve applied it to the favorite toy of atheists: Occam’s razor.

Lovely greetings from Germany.
Liebe Grüsse aus Deutschland.

Lothars Sohn - Lothar’s son
lotharlorraine.wordpress.com
 
The fact that a proposition is expressed using non-absolute symbols does not make the proposition itself non-absolute.
I disagree. Since the symbols are non-absolute, we need to go outside of the symbols to know what they mean. Hence the meaning of the symbols is relative, not absolute. Since non-absolute symbols can only ever express a non-absolute meaning it is impossible to express an Absolute Truth in non-absolute symbols.

What is the absolute meaning of the symbols “elf”? In English they mean a mythological humanoid. In German they mean the number 11. Any meaning we assign to those symbols must be relative to the language we are using. Those symbols have no Absolute meaning; they only have a relative meaning.
Well, I would not claim to be able to evaluate a proposition stated in a language I don’t know. I think you are confusing ontology and epistemology: I don’t have a way of figuring out if the statement is absolutely true, but that does not mean that it is not absolutely true. (It could also be false.)
As you say, you do not have a way to decide if the statement is absolutely true or not. Since we can certainly express relative truths in ordinary language, there is no problem with the “truth” part. Ordinary statements may be true, false or undecidable. What we need is a way to distinguish Absolute Truths, expressed in language, from relative truths, also expressed in language. We need an “Absoluteness detector” to distinguish the Absolute Truths from the relative truths.

What is that “Absoluteness Detector”? Is the “AD” itself Absolute or relative? How do we distinguish a relative AD from an Absolute AD? I am sure you can see the infinite regress I am leading towards. We cannot detect Absolute Truth without some independently established Absoluteness detector. Such a detector does not exist, at least we cannot show that any claimed detector is itself Absolute. A relative Absoluteness detector cannot be relied on.

rossum
 
Since the symbols are non-absolute, we need to go outside of the symbols to know what they mean. Hence the meaning of the symbols is relative, not absolute. Since non-absolute symbols can only ever express a non-absolute meaning it is impossible to express an Absolute Truth in non-absolute symbols.
Let’s take a step back. I am not claiming that a proposition in non-absolute symbols itself will express a truth to everyone who reads it, but I am saying that a person familiar with the particular system of symbols can obtain absolute truth from propositions stated with non-absolute symbols.

So it doesn’t matter if “elf” has different meanings in two different languages - in English conversation, it would be understood to mean some sort of mythical creature with pointy ears.

However, even if you were right that non-absolute symbols cannot express absolute meanings, it would not follow that absolute meanings are unknowable.
As you say, you do not have a way to decide if the statement is absolutely true or not. Since we can certainly express relative truths in ordinary language, there is no problem with the “truth” part. Ordinary statements may be true, false or undecidable. What we need is a way to distinguish Absolute Truths, expressed in language, from relative truths, also expressed in language. We need an “Absoluteness detector” to distinguish the Absolute Truths from the relative truths.
Frankly, I think the intellect grasps propositional content independent of language and symbols (as in the example with the picture on the wall). If that propositional content reflects the actual state of affairs, then it is absolutely true.

I also find your position indefensible from the beginning. The two statements 1+1=2 and &@&|&& are equivalent given how we’ve defined the symbols; they reflect the same truth. The fact that two symbolically distinct statements can be equivalent indicates that their truth value is independent of their symbolic representation.
 
From Linus2nd:
Poly’ is correct. Thomas was convinced that the creation of the universe in time was strictly a matter of Faith. S.T., Part 1, ques. 46, arts 1-3.
Thomas was not convinced the creation of the universe in time was strictly a matter of Faith. He merely said it could not be scientifically demonstrated:
Q 46 Art 2: “I answer that, By faith alone do we hold, and by no demonstration can it be proved, that the world did not always exist, as was said above of the mystery of the Trinity (32, 1). The reason of this is that the newness of the world cannot be demonstrated on the part of the world itself.”
That is, the universe itself cannot prove or disprove its eternity because all we can look at is the universe at the present time.
This does not mean Aquinas thought an eternal universe was possible. He didn’t.
Q 46 Art 1: “I answer that, Nothing except God can be eternal.”
And this is logically derived from what he said earlier in ST when he discussed the Five Ways: “we can’t go back to infinity”.
This why he designed the Five Ways so that the existence of God **can be proven starting from an eternally existing universe or one beginning in time. :bigyikes:
**
Linus2nd
This is impossible. In the Five Ways, Aquinas’s argument is “we can’t go back to infinity, therefore …”
 
Let’s take a step back. I am not claiming that a proposition in non-absolute symbols itself will express a truth to everyone who reads it, but I am saying that a person familiar with the particular system of symbols can obtain absolute truth from propositions stated with non-absolute symbols.
How can you know, absolutely, that it is an Absolute Truth, and not just a humdrum relative truth expressed in those symbols? What is it that distinguishes an Absolute Truth from a relative truth? Obviously the possibility of being expressed in symbols is not enough to distinguish one from the other. What are you using as a distinguishing mechanism?
However, even if you were right that non-absolute symbols cannot express absolute meanings, it would not follow that absolute meanings are unknowable.
How can we know we have understood the absolute meaning and have not made a mistake? Again I come back to the problem of how we distinguish an absolute meaning from a relative meaning. Without such an ability to distinguish, we lack certainty that we have correctly discerned any supposed absolute meaning.
If that propositional content reflects the actual state of affairs, then it is absolutely true.
An Absolute Truth cannot change. The “actual state of affairs” does change, and hence cannot be used to distinguish Absolute Truth.
The two statements 1+1=2 and &@&|&& are equivalent given how we’ve defined the symbols; they reflect the same truth.
But is it a relative truth or an Absolute Truth? How do you determine which it is?
The fact that two symbolically distinct statements can be equivalent indicates that their truth value is independent of their symbolic representation.
Given the appropriate dictionary, any two symbolically distinct statements can be equivalent. Their equivalence, or non-equivalence, is purely dependent on what dictionaries we are using for each set of symbols. Since all symbol dictionaries are relative, and not absolute, you have again failed to define a useful distinguisher.

Statements of Absolute Truth may, or may not, exist. However, it is impossible in practice to distinguish between statements of Absolute Truth and statements of mere relative truth. The concept of Absolute Truth fails because of the lack of a working distinguisher.

rossum
 
From Linus2nd:

Thomas was not convinced the creation of the universe in time was strictly a matter of Faith. He merely said it could not be scientifically demonstrated:
Q 46 Art 2: “I answer that, By faith alone do we hold, and by no demonstration can it be proved, that the world did not always exist, as was said above of the mystery of the Trinity (32, 1). The reason of this is that the newness of the world cannot be demonstrated on the part of the world itself.”
That is, the universe itself cannot prove or disprove its eternity because all we can look at is the universe at the present time.
This does not mean Aquinas thought an eternal universe was possible. He didn’t.
Q 46 Art 1: “I answer that, Nothing except God can be eternal.”
And this is logically derived from what he said earlier in ST when he discussed the Five Ways: “we can’t go back to infinity”.

This is impossible. In the Five Ways, Aquinas’s argument is “we can’t go back to infinity, therefore …”
Eternal does not equate to infinite as far as time is concerned. Aquinas does argue that only God is eternal, but that does not mean he thought an infinite universe was thereby excluded. Infinite could include being within a temporal series that reaches without ending backwards or forwards, but that series obtains “in time,” albeit infinite time. Eternal means outside of any temporal constraints, whether finite or infinite. Aquinas accepted that the universe is constrained within time and admitted that serial time could be infinite without affecting his argument from motion.

I believe the idea of the unmoved Mover is that in order to explain the temporal series of causation (infinite or finite) we need to arrive - by means of the principle of sufficient reason - at an explanation that does not require a causal explanation, I.e., is not caused, but rather self-explanatory, and that excludes everything within the causal space-time series (whether the series is infinite or finite is irrelevant since the changing series itself must be explained) but must appeal to an explanation which is eternal or outside of space-time.

Appeal to an infinite series of causes to explain anything is merely “passing the buck” as a way of circumventing the need for an explanation. It “puts off” explanation and replaces it with “Neverland,” aka Infinity. A cheap magician’s sleight of logic.
 
Rossum, you said before something to the effect of, “One cannot truly know anything outside of himself, even that which he detects with his senses.”

If one cannot truly know the fullness of the world outside of himself, is that an absolute truth? Or only a relative truth?

If it is a relative truth, then does that mean that one could potentially know the fullness of the world outside of himself?
 
Rossum, you said before something to the effect of, “One cannot truly know anything outside of himself, even that which he detects with his senses.”

If one cannot truly know the fullness of the world outside of himself, is that an absolute truth? Or only a relative truth?
It is a relative truth.
If it is a relative truth, then does that mean that one could potentially know the fullness of the world outside of himself?
Possibly. What new senses do you propose adding to your body in a future life? It is a relative truth while we are confined to human senses. If in a future lifetime we have different senses, then we will need to look at the accuracy of those other senses.

rossum
 
Thomas was not convinced the creation of the universe was a matter of Faith.empther;11100240]From Linus2nd:
Thomas was not convinced the creation of the universe in time was strictly a matter of Faith. He merely said it could not be scientifically demonstrated:
?? You follow with a quote which contradicts what you just said!!!
Q 46 Art 2: “I answer that, By faith alone do we hold, and by no demonstration can it be proved, that the world did not always exist, as was said above of the mystery of the Trinity (32, 1). The reason of this is that the newness of the world cannot be demonstrated on the part of the world itself.”
That is, the universe itself cannot prove or disprove its eternity because all we can look at is the universe at the present time.
This does not mean Aquinas thought an eternal universe was possible. He didn’t.
And I never said he did. I said he held it as a matter of Faith that the universe was created in time. He simply designed his proofs so they would be valid either way.
Q 46 Art 1: “I answer that, Nothing except God can be eternal.”
You omitted the rest of the quote, " Nothing except God can be eternal. And this statement is far from impossible to uphold: ." Thomas is speaking from faith here he is not offering a philosophical demonstration.;
And this is logically derived from what he said earlier in ST when he discussed the Five Ways: “we can’t go back to infinity”
Q 46, Art 2 " . On the contrary, The articles of faith cannot be proved demonstratively, because faith is of things “that appear not” (Hebrews 11:1). But that God is the Creator of the world: hence that the world began, is an article of faith; for we say, “I believe in one God,” etc. And again, Gregory says (Hom. i in Ezech.), that Moses prophesied of the past, saying, “In the beginning God created heaven and earth”: in which words the newness of the world is stated. Therefore the newness of the world is known only by revelation; and therefore it cannot be proved demonstratively.

I answer that, By faith alone do we hold, and by no demonstration can it be proved, that the world did not always exist, as was said above of the mystery of the Trinity (32, 1). The reason of this is that the newness of the world cannot be demonstrated on the part of the world itself. For the principle of demonstration is the essence of a thing. Now everything according to its species is abstracted from “here” and “now”; whence it is said that universals are everywhere and always. Hence it cannot be demonstrated that man, or heaven, or a stone were not always. Likewise neither can it be demonstrated on the part of the efficient cause, which acts by will. For the will of God cannot be investigated by reason, except as regards those things which God must will of necessity; and what He wills about creatures is not among these, as was said above (Question 19, Article 3). But the divine will can be manifested by revelation, on which faith rests. Hence that the world began to exist is an object of faith, but not of demonstration or science. And it is useful to consider this, lest anyone, presuming to demonstrate what is of faith, should bring forward reasons that are not cogent, so as to give occasion to unbelievers to laugh, thinking that on such grounds we believe things that are of faith. "

It is an Article of Faith that God created the universe in time. The truth of this article cannot be demonstrated. This is what Thomas taught.
This is impossible. In the Five Ways, Aquinas’s argument is “we can’t go back to infinity, therefore …”
All I can tell you is that all competent commentators of Thomas agree that what I said is true. Heri Renard, a classic commentator, says that " …This proof does not reject the possibility of a world existing from eternity; it transcends this possibility, because it is an existential proof…" ( Philosophy of God, pg 35). Thomas Gilby in his translation of S.T., Part 1, Ques 2-11, comments that, “…What we should not look for is the first mover within a series of things each giving and receiving the same sort of movement…In the meantime let us refer to the question of a series of items stretching endlessly backwards…( even here we must stop )…at a first mover of the world in process of change…the concept of an infinite series is admissible…So in the prima via he is not attempting to follow chain of movers-in-motion to the end. The first mover he arrives at is not number one of the series, but outside it…the first cause is seen to be immediately operative in every effect…” ( Blackfriars translation of the S.T., Appendix 6, The First Way, pg 193,194)

Linus2nd
 
From post 51:
Eternal does not equate to infinite as far as time is concerned. Aquinas does argue that only God is eternal, but that does not mean he thought an infinite universe was thereby excluded. Infinite could include being within a temporal series that reaches without ending backwards or forwards, but that series obtains “in time,” albeit infinite time. Eternal means outside of any temporal constraints, whether finite or infinite.** Aquinas accepted that the universe is constrained within time and admitted that serial time could be infinite without affecting his argument from motion. :bigyikes: **
Serial time could not be infinite unless it actually reached infinity,
which obviously is impossible.

By the way, dear students of philosophy, 😃
when Aquinas uses the word “movement”, he’s speaking in the tradition of Socrates and Plato who used one word to represent many things, for example, Plato advocated the study of “music” by which he meant the study of all kinds of social sciences and arts.

Aquinas uses “movement” to refer to all kinds of changes you can think of, not just physical relocation. So God is eternal rather than in time because he is unchanging.
 
I just read post 54,
and I’ve seldom seen so much confusion in such a small space. 😦

There’s no point in even replying to it. :bighanky:
 
I just read post 54,
and I’ve seldom seen so much confusion in such a small space. 😦

There’s no point in even replying to it. :bighanky:
Clearly, you are an equal opportunity pooh-pooher. No respecter of persons, are you?
 
Statements of Absolute Truth may, or may not, exist. However, it is impossible in practice to distinguish between statements of Absolute Truth and statements of mere relative truth. The concept of Absolute Truth fails because of the lack of a working distinguisher.

rossum
You have failed to provide a working distinguisher to determine whether your statement that “Concepts of Absolute Truth fail to establish the existence of Absolute Truth,” is itself an Absolute Truth or merely relatively so. Therefore, we can rightfully dismiss it as making no contribution to the discussion.
 
]Possibly. What new senses do you propose adding to your body in a future life? It is a relative truth while we are confined to human senses. If in a future lifetime we have different senses, then we will need to look at the accuracy of those other senses.
Okay, but if I only ever have human senses, and assuming that this is the only life I live, is it possible for me to know the fullness of this world?

EDIT: Also, something else I thought of. Is the idea that “Absolute Truth either exists or doesn’t exist” in itself an absolute truth? Is it true that “Absolute Truth either exists or doesn’t”, or is it possible that it is false?
 
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