You’ve misunderstood. No one has opposed the proving of things empirically. The only thing that has been opposed is empiricism, the idea that things can *only *be true if proven empirically or as warpspeedpetey said that “knowledge can be gained only by the senses”.
No, my friend, I did not misunderstand anything. It is you and WSP who misunderstand the requirements and the meaning of empiricism. You set up a
strawman in the form of “knowledge can be gained only by the senses” - which is **NOT **what empiricism says, and then happily burn it into the ground. Well, good riddance. That is
not what empiricism says. It is quite sad that such an obvious point has to be told over and over again. No matter how many times I, and many others have pointed it out, someone will come back with the same BS, and present it a “glorious argument” against empiricism.
What would you say if someone claimed that logic is self-contradictory, because the laws of logic cannot be proven logically? You would ridicule such a dumb claim. And so do I when I point out that empiricism is not supposed to be proven empirically, just like logic is not supposed to be proven logically. I hope you see the parallel, but my hopes are not high. However, maybe you will surprise me. It would be a pleasant surprise.
Materialists and empiricists gladly agree that
abstract type of knowledge is not verified, proven, substantiated by sensory observation. So there you go. If you wish to take a poke at empiricism, be my guest, but at the very least **understand **what empiricism
IS. Building strawmen can be fun, but it does not raise your credibility in a discussion. You only revealed your ignorance with the claim that “empiricism is the idea that things can *only *be true if proven empirically”. Obviously you are not a mathematician, otherwise you would not have said something so patently false.
No one has claimed that the proving of things empirically was “dirty”. All that has been claimed is that empiricism is self-contradictory. Revelation, might be someone else’s claim (that of the Most High God), but empiricism is also someone else’s claim and one that is easily refuted by reason. Revelation, on the other hand, has not been proven false, nor can it be for it does not base its claims on sensory experiences and has been vindicated by many miracles.
Revelation is only some other human’s
claim - in which he claims that he
experienced God in some fashion or another. The so-called “miracles” are also just human
claims - that something actually happened according to their
senses. But those claims cannot be substantiated, and as a matter of fact, the Catholic Church does not even require you to accept some other person’s
claim of revelation. But all those are just human claims of a
sensory (name removed by moderator)ut… nothing more. And you accept their
claim, and sometimes their
claim of some supporting data. All that is a kind of “sensory knowledge”.
If I am a joke in good reason, then I do not mind. For what a joy it is to be a fool for Christ, if that foolishness is truly good reason.
That is your business. But stick to it, and understand that all the revelations, miracles etc… are human
claims of some
sensory observation of a real or imagined event.
Remember: “
Nihil est in intellectu quod non prius fuerit in sensu”. All our thoughts and ideas start with observation - though they do not end there. We create new ideas, new abstractions. People have seen horses, have seen antlers and horns, so they combine the two and come up with an imaginary animal: a unicorn. If someone claims to have seen a unicorn, you would be within your rights to
demand actual, physical evidence (evidence and proof are
NOT the same!) for such a claim. When such an evidence is not forthcoming, it is rational and reasonable to reject the claim (Hic Rhodos, his salta!). Mind you, it is not a “proof” that the claimant was wrong, he may have seen the result of a genetic experiment, and may have actually seen a bona-fide unicorn. But as long as the evidence is lacking, it is rational and reasonable to reject the claim.
The other incorrect (but frequently claimed) assertion is: “absence of
evidence is not an evidence of absence”. It is an evidence of absence and a very strong evidence it is. The correct form would be: “absence of
proof is not a proof of absence”. But then again I (and many others) have pointed that one out before - and I am willing to bet dollars to cents, that it will come back again.