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Acolythus_sum
Guest
“Reply to Objection 1. The other two Baptisms are included in the Baptism of Water, which derives its efficacy, both from Christ’s Passion and from the Holy Ghost. Consequently for this reason the unity of Baptism is not destroyed.”My mistake. Actually Water Baptism was infallibly declared before Aquinas made such comments, but that does not mean that he knew of those teachings.
St. Robert Bellarmine: “It is very credible that St. Thomas, Alexander of Hales, and other scholastic doctors had not seen the second synod of Nice [Nicea II], nor the eighth general synod… [they] were long in obscurity, and were first published in our own age, as may be known from their not being extant in the older volumes of the councils; and St. Thomas and the other ancient schoolmen never make any mention of this Nicene Synod.” (De Imag. Sanct. Lib. II. Cap. Xxij.; quoted in NPNF2, Vol. 14, p. 526)
St. Robert Bellarmine says that St. Thomas Aquinas was probably unaware of what was taught in the seventh and eighth ecumenical councils of the Catholic Church: that is, the Second Council of Nicea in 787, and the Fourth Council of Constantinople in 869-870. This is a significant statement. Some people have argued that it’s impossible or unthinkable that a doctor of the Church could be wrong or ignorant of something taught at a council. To the contrary, the teaching of doctors of the Church is important, but it is not infallible. A doctor of the Church can be wrong and even ignorant of certain things that have been taught by the Church. Their teaching certainly does not weigh more than the teaching of the Magisterium.
Pope Benedict XIV, Apostolica (# 6), June 26, 1749: “The Church’s judgment is preferable to that of a Doctor renowned for his holiness and teaching.”
Pope Pius XII, Humani generis (# 21), Aug. 12, 1950: “This deposit of faith our Divine Redeemer has given for authentic interpretation not to each of the faithful, not even to theologians, but only to the Teaching Authority of the Church.’”
So we can see that the defenders of “baptism of desire”– and even those who say that it’s unthinkable that baptism of desire could be incompatible with Catholic teaching if a doctor of the Church believed in it – are wrong again
In this paragraph is clearly defined the unity of the three types of Baptism, contained under one Baptism. Kind of like the Most Holy Trinity… Thus, these teachings (Aquinas and Trent) are mutually compatible, as Trent never specifies that the Baptism of Water is the only kind of Baptism acceptable. Aquinas’ Summa Theologica, which has been given the Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur, asserting that it is free of error in Catholic teaching, informs this statement from Trent with the qualifications of the “unity of Baptism”.
Have you been missing the below question, or are you ignoring it? Please respond to its argument.
You still have not replied to the problem of how God’s omnipotence is reconciled with the limits the “water baptism only” imposes. Please respond with a logical refutation or cede the point. Note that large, bold words do not count as logic.
A practical example may help to illustrate my point: By your reasoning, every person in America was damned until missionaries came, over 1500 years after our Lord’s command to “go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the Name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost”. They surely weren’t baptized! Even if one of them had desired to be saved (inasmuch as he understood it) and thereby strove to live a virtuous life, he would have been damned by no fault of his own.
This is clearly a Calvinistic view of free will in that, by this reasoning, much of the world would have been predestined to damnation with no chance of salvation! How is this reconcilable with the image of a loving, omnipotent God?!?–the God Who is clearly taught by Holy Mother Church!