Just as a matter of principle: I would think that if one believes that scripture is the infallible word of God, that even if something is stated just
once, it is still the word of God, and thus still binding. Personally, I don’t really feel comfortable being able to draw an arbitrary line somewhere in scripture and say “This, this, and this is good for today, but that and that is outdated and thus invalidated.”
Yes of course the early Church thought that way. I think it’s perfectly acceptable to
still think and live that way - Christ could in fact return before I finish this post - no man knows. Also, I could die in a fiery crash on the way home from work and then be face to face with God Himself. But the infallible teachings of scripture are not invalidated just because the early Christians were wrong about the timing of the 2nd coming. I think the point and thought processes made by the early Church are still valid today. We could debate this though.
Now I really could be reading this incorrectly (and if so just please just ignore this next bit with my apologies) I’m getting a sense of a little
ad hominem fallicy here. I’m the first one to admit I’m not the brightest crayon in the box, but let’s stick to attacking the argument not the one making the argument.
He does clearly in 1 Cor 7:8 by saying,
“Now to the unmarried and to widows, I say: it is a good thing for them to remain as they are, as I do”. Also read the commentary provided at the USCCB NAB website on this.
usccb.org/nab/bible/1corinthians/1corinthians7.htm#foot6 It segues nicely into your next point.
It is certainly reasonable that he
may have been widowed or previously married, but that would most likely be in his past, pre-Christian life. He then, under the infallible inspiration of the Holy Spirit, wrote the letter stating that he was not currently married and that it is good that those who can should remain as he
currently was at the time of writing the letter. There isn’t any sort of footnote that states that in case Christ doesn’t come tomorrow or that the times have changed, so we can ignore this. You also neglect the example of Christ Himself. He also is a good Jew, therefore according to the logic you have set forth, it is more reasonable to suggest that he was married at some point. We know this, however, not to be the case.
I didn’t impose anything on the Church - it was the Church who convinced me of it’s teachings on this issue. The teaching of the Church is clear here and is summed up clearly in the Catechism of the Catholic Church #1579. I look forward to your thoughts sir. (I won’t be able to respond until tomorrow - I heading to bed