G
Genesis315
Guest
That was part of it. In general, in the last couple centuries they went through a very anti-Latin period where they purged a lot of things they saw as Latin corruptions–pretty much anything they saw as originating in the Latin West, even if they had themselves taught it for centuries at pan-Orthodox Councils (another good example is indulgences, taught in their pan-Orthodox Councils at Constantinople in 1727 and 1838, but now generally denied). Since the doctrine on original sin was explicitly formulated most notably by St. Augustine in opposition to the Pelagians, it became suspect.Since you seem rather familiar with the history, is it possible that it really became a larger issue between us and the EO around the time the dogma of the Immaculate Conception was proclaimed? That kind of thing (papal declaration) sticks in the craw of EO folks and it certainly involved discussions of original sin…
Either they are right now, but were in error about this for over a thousand years, or they changed their doctrine on this recently. Neither options helps their credibility.