C
czarlazar
Guest
I will address your answer, but I don’t recall saying anything about her sin in my entire post. I said she was not of an “immaculate conception”, because that is not human, and therefore she would not be human. Jesus was fully God and fully man - that is not the same as Mary, she was fully human - no god whatsoever. The issue here is two things, if Mary had the immaculate conceptions, then so did Ana, and so on and so on…because your (Catholic) argument of the need for the immaculate for conception for Christ would mean that the ones (i.e. Mary) having immaculate conceptions would also need to be from an immaculate conceptions (i.e. Ana and so forth) thus they would not be human. The second issue is that by removing her “org. sin” as the Catholic teach, they have “sin proofed” Mary — so really Mary did nothing — she was just like a machine, sin proffed and popped out a baby. Whereas the Orthodox hold Mary in such high regard because she could have sinned, had Ance. Sin, and yet she chose not to sin — thats the big difference. That is why she is the first among the saints, and an example to all mankind.Where do you get the idea that she has to have sin to be human? Jesus has no sin either, so why would he be human? Why could we say that he became one with us? I do not believe that most Orthodox believe Mary ever sinned. They just do not need to call her birth immaculate because they do not believe in inherited sin.