P
prodromos
Guest
What exactly needs to be settled?Those links show otherwise. How do Orthodox settle this?
What exactly needs to be settled?Those links show otherwise. How do Orthodox settle this?
Do you all do post-humously, just to set the record straight?Why not let the reposed rest? The late Fr. Thomas can no longer answer questions.
This is using terminology that has no meaning to theology and ecclesiology as done today. Quite the opposite.And what part of this post was unclear about Jesus validating that Peter is the greatest among the others?
Can you refute that ?
I asked you to refute what I posted #153.
Why is there such a confrontational mien encountered so frequently here? Do people come from the purpose of arguing? One does not see such a fashion of behaving either in conversations among Catholic theologians or in dialogue between Catholic and non Catholic theologians. God be thanked.Re: Acts 15? Make your case.
I hope not.This is using terminology that has no meaning to theology and ecclesiology as done today. Quite the opposite.
And in Jesus’ day as well, actually, since He Himself said that the one who desired to be the greatest must make himself the least and the servant of all – which, of course, is why one of the Pope’s titles is Servus Servorum Dei…the servant of the servants of God. The Petrine ministry is, at its essence, a service.
For over 20 years, the theological community has been assessing and formulating a response to the invitation by Pope Saint John Paul II on how the Petrine office and the exercise of the Petrine ministry could be reformed and re-visioned in order to better realize its purpose for Church unity rather than hindering it…as the Saint was himself the first to acknowledge is the case in the contemporary Church. He understood in a profoundly personal way. It is a profound theological question and the answer, accepted, will ultimately result in dramatic changes.
Why is there such a confrontational mien encountered so frequently here? Do people come from the purpose of arguing? One does not see such a fashion of behaving either in conversations among Catholic theologians or in dialogue between Catholic and non Catholic theologians.
Jesus wanted perfect unity not only with his apostles but those who came to faith through them. John 17:20-23This is using terminology that has no meaning to theology and ecclesiology as done today. Quite the opposite.
And in Jesus’ day as well,
Did Peter desire to be the greatest? No. He was chosen by God for his roleactually, since He Himself said that the one who desired to be the greatest must make himself the least and the servant of all – which, of course, is why one of the Pope’s titles is Servus Servorum Dei…the servant of the servants of God. The Petrine ministry is, at its essence, a service.
How has Petrine authority damaged the Church or damaged Church unity?For over 20 years, the theological community has been assessing and formulating a response to the invitation by Pope Saint John Paul II on how the Petrine office and the exercise of the Petrine ministry could be reformed and re-visioned in order to better realize its purpose for Church unity rather than hindering it…as the Saint was himself the first to acknowledge is the case in the contemporary Church.
I would suggest, redirecting someone to answer a question is not arguing.Why is there such a confrontational mien encountered so frequently here? Do people come from the purpose of arguing?
Has division in Christianity lessened or gotten worse with current dialogue among “theologians” ?One does not see such a fashion of behaving either in conversations among Catholic theologians or in dialogue between Catholic and non Catholic theologians. God be thanked.
Who taught Paul the following on division?It is certainly not the model of Jesus.
It is also not the model of the Holy Father. Indeed, this reminds me of a comment he made recently that the Orthodox have taught, and continue to teach, us much on the issue of synodality…something very dear to the heart of His Holiness and something much more in the future of the Roman Catholic Church, just as it is something at the heart of the Eastern Catholic Churches.I’d say that’s pretty darn direct. No nuance. Is there an expiration date on that warning? No
Given this insult to our present Holy Father, my exchange with you is now closed.speaking of nuance![]()
To be perfectly clear: synodality, which Pope Francis is promoting within the Roman Church, is a concept essentially recovered to the Roman Church by Blessed Paul VI. It is a gift of the Churches of the East. It has been, is, and will continue to be a blessing to the Roman Church and an ever greater help to her in the future. It is not synonymous with collegiality although it is an exercise of collegiality. Neither synodality or collegiality are an expression of conciliarism.Collegiality is the goal, yet Conciliarism as you know was condemned at Vat I
catholicculture.org/culture/library/dictionary/index.cfm?id=32689
I was thinking of saying this anyhow, but it seems all the more appropriate in view of this post and the other four most recent posts: I take comfort in the fact that there isn’t much new in this discussion compared with one that Steve b and I had a year or two ago (and a year or two before that, and a year or two before that …)It’s wearisome to read this sort of stuff.
I can only say to you, in all sincerity, that “this kind of talk,” which truly belongs in a past left behind, is foreign to Rome, to the Holy Father, and to the dicasteries of the Holy See today. A corner was turned in 1964. Pope Francis well models, by his words and by his gestures, what is the thought of the Catholic hierarchy and of the Catholic theological community.
To read such things would of course be very discouraging to you. I find it discouraging that this mindset is still to be found although I have delineated where it is not found. In that, look to what the Bishop of Rome does and is doing…to what the Holy See says and does…to what the bishops of the Catholic world are saying and doing, for that is what ultimately matters.
It was a singular moment when Francis bowed to Bartholomew and asked the successor of Andrew to bless the successor Peter and his Church. That is a memory that the Church will still be cherishing and contemplating for a long time to come. It was an inspired gesture. And it will be an inspiration.
The blessing of God be upon you and yours.
And what did we learn from the last synod in Rome on the family?It is also not the model of the Holy Father. Indeed, this reminds me of a comment he made recently that the Orthodox have taught, and continue to teach, us much on the issue of synodality.…something very dear to the heart of His Holiness and something much more in the future of the Roman Catholic Church, just as it is something at the heart of the Eastern Catholic Churches.
I wasn’t talking about the holy Father.Given this insult to our present Holy Father, my exchange with you is now closed.
Given this subject of synodality from the Eastern perspective, here is something to learn from that POVTo be perfectly clear: synodality, which Pope Francis is promoting within the Roman Church, is a concept essentially recovered to the Roman Church by Blessed Paul VI. It is a gift of the Churches of the East. It has been, is, and will continue to be a blessing to the Roman Church and an ever greater help to her in the future. It is not synonymous with collegiality although it is an exercise of collegiality. Neither synodality or collegiality are an expression of conciliarism.
Did you note the following comment in that doc I quoted from, Re: Ut Unum Sint?Pope Saint John Paul II’s own words speak for themselves. They are freely available to anyone who seeks them.
I can only believe that, somehow, you failed to see the comment from the moderator, Mr. Eric Hilbert.Until that issue of unity with Peter gets settled, Catholics receiving Eucharist from an Orthodox priest requires extraordinary circumstances.
Noted. This stand is quite familiar on this Forum. I have seen it a few times here on Orthodox related threads. It is nevertheless an unilateral stance on the side of the Church. Going by what Orthodox posters mentioned here, the Orthodox priests may not administer you the Sacraments if he know that you are Catholics.The Church does not agree with you. A Catholic may licitly receive the Eucharist, confession and anointing in the following circumstances and I may licitly administer the same three sacraments to the Orthodox in the following circumstances…notwithstanding the points you continue to raise.
*Can. 844 §1. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments licitly to Catholic members of the Christian faithful alone, who likewise receive them licitly from Catholic ministers alone, without prejudice to the prescripts of §§2, 3, and 4 of this canon, and ⇒ can. 861, §2.
§2. Whenever necessity requires it or true spiritual advantage suggests it*, and provided that danger of error or of indifferentism is avoided, the Christian faithful for whom it is physically or morally impossible to approach a Catholic minister are permitted to receive the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick from non-Catholic ministers in whose Churches these sacraments are valid.
§3. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick licitly to members of Eastern Churches which do not have full communion with the Catholic Church if they seek such on their own accord and are properly disposed. This is also valid for members of other Churches which in the judgment of the Apostolic See are in the same condition in regard to the sacraments as these Eastern Churches.
Canon 844 §2 would accommodate a situation as non-extraordinary as an elderly widow, Catholic, who could not always get to the Catholic Church across town but could seek the sacraments from the Orthodox priest next door to her, should he be agreeable to granting them to her…just as I would do in the reverse situation, according to §3.
Eucharistic ministers go to hospitals all the time. My wife and I take Eucharist to the sick and inform in their homes all the time. And we are in a parish of 3000 families.I can only believe that, somehow, you failed to see the comment from the moderator, Mr. Eric Hilbert.
I am sure you have made an oversight since I trust you are not seeking, either for yourself or any of the rest of the participants, to be out of compliance with his very clear directive.
The only point in what you wrote related to the original post is the one about Catholics receiving the Eucharist from Orthodox priests and your statement that it requires extraordinary circumstances. The Church does not agree with you. A Catholic may licitly receive the Eucharist, confession and anointing in the following circumstances and I may licitly administer the same three sacraments to the Orthodox in the following circumstances…notwithstanding the points you continue to raise.
*Can. 844 §1. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments licitly to Catholic members of the Christian faithful alone, who likewise receive them licitly from Catholic ministers alone, without prejudice to the prescripts of §§2, 3, and 4 of this canon, and ⇒ can. 861, §2.
§2. Whenever necessity requires it or true spiritual advantage suggests it*, and provided that danger of error or of indifferentism is avoided, the Christian faithful for whom it is physically or morally impossible to approach a Catholic minister are permitted to receive the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick from non-Catholic ministers in whose Churches these sacraments are valid.
§3. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick licitly to members of Eastern Churches which do not have full communion with the Catholic Church if they seek such on their own accord and are properly disposed. This is also valid for members of other Churches which in the judgment of the Apostolic See are in the same condition in regard to the sacraments as these Eastern Churches.
Canon 844 §2 would accommodate a situation as non-extraordinary as an elderly widow, Catholic, who could not always get to the Catholic Church across town but could seek the sacraments from the Orthodox priest next door to her, should he be agreeable to granting them to her…just as I would do in the reverse situation, according to §3.
Various Orthodox respond in various ways. That decision rests with them.Noted. This stand is quite familiar on this Forum. I have seen it a few times here on Orthodox related threads. It is nevertheless an unilateral stance on the side of the Church. Going by what Orthodox posters mentioned here, the Orthodox priests may not administer you the Sacraments if he know that you are Catholics.
So in English it means that Orthodox can just attend Catholic mass anytime if he chooses to without extraordinary circumstances.Various Orthodox respond in various ways. That decision rests with them.
The canon notes that we priests of the Roman Rite, who are governed by this code, are in no sense to see providing these sacraments to our brothers and sisters of the Orthodox Churches (and such others deemed in equivalent circumstance by the Holy See) as requiring some extraordinary circumstance. .
That is a bit vague, lots of grey areas there, isn’t it? What is a spiritual advantage for a Catholic to receive Holy Communion from the Orthodox? Practically I would think a lower threshold would encompass a Catholic to simply decide which church is convenient to go to or which one is more pleasant. In other word, the Catholic himself decides and justifies his decision rather than being limited by extraordinary circumstances. He is much less free than his Orthodox counterpart who receives from a Catholic priest for sure, but in real sense, minus the extraordinary circumstances, not very limited either.Relative to Catholic faithful of the Roman Rite, the circumstances of the request would have to be within the parameters set by the law. If the legislator had left the wording at “Whenever necessity requires it” or had said “Whenever grave necessity requires it”, canonically one would be speaking of an extraordinary circumstance for justification. ** But, since he qualified it with “or true spiritual advantage suggests it,” the threshold is lower.**
Assuredly the Orthodox may attend a Catholic Mass anytime. An Orthodox, or one in the same circumstance according to the mind of the Holy See, may receive Communion, go to confession or be anointed by a Catholic priest, according to what the canon stipulates. They must present themselves of their own volition. We urge the Orthodox to follow the laws and prescriptions of their own Church in these matters but, from our side, they are able to receive these sacraments and this canon is governing the action of the Catholic priest in saying what he should do, if he is approached by someone who is Orthodox.So in English it means that Orthodox can just attend Catholic mass anytime if he chooses to without extraordinary circumstances.
Canon law in many instances provides a latitude in which one must make a prudential decision. It would be the widow herself who would make the determination of what constitutes “a true spiritual advantage” – perhaps with assistance from her pastor or another competent to advise, if she were in doubt.That is a bit vague, lots of grey areas there, isn’t it? What is a spiritual advantage for a Catholic to receive Holy Communion from the Orthodox? Practically I would think a lower threshold would encompass a Catholic to simply decide which church is convenient to go to or which one is more pleasant. In other word, the Catholic himself decides and justifies his decision rather than being limited by extraordinary circumstances. He is much less free than his Orthodox counterpart who receives from a Catholic priest for sure, but in real sense, minus the extraordinary circumstances, not very limited either.
The Eucharist could only be received licitly in both instances cited in this canon. “Licit” is synonymous with “lawful.” If the law permits it, it is lawful by definition. Of course, the Catholic widow should not do this by stealth but rather should be respectful of their norms just as they are of our norms.Now the real question here, is the Orthodox Eucharist licitly received by this elderly Catholic widow or just valid?
Ok. Clear and fair enough. Thank you very much.Assuredly the Orthodox may attend a Catholic Mass anytime. An Orthodox, or one in the same circumstance according to the mind of the Holy See, may receive Communion, go to confession or be anointed by a Catholic priest, according to what the canon stipulates. They must present themselves of their own volition. We urge the Orthodox to follow the laws and prescriptions of their own Church in these matters but, from our side, they are able to receive these sacraments and this canon is governing the action of the Catholic priest in saying what he should do, if he is approached by someone who is Orthodox.
Canon law in many instances provides a latitude in which one must make a prudential decision. It would be the widow herself who would make the determination of what constitutes “a true spiritual advantage” – perhaps with assistance from her pastor or another competent to advise, if she were in doubt.
The qualification, “a true spiritual advantage,” asks that the person weigh carefully their evaluation with true deliberation. However, if the spiritual advantage is really and truly there, the person can proceed.
Canon Law cannot foresee every circumstance that one billion Catholics may find themselves in and proceed to legislate for each one…hence, the law provides latitude
Finally, this does not sanction indifferentism. One is either Catholic or not. One is either
Orthodox or not. The fact that our sacraments are each valid such that one is validly absolved, anointed or truly receives the Body and Blood of Christ by a priest of the other does not mean that one may go to one or the other with indifference and without actually identifying as either. That would be to be abuse the grant. If one is using Canon 844, to seek the sacraments from an Orthodox, by necessity one must be Catholic of the Latin Rite to invoke this canon. (Those who are part of one of the Eastern Catholic Churches are governed by their own Code of Canon Law.)
The Eucharist could only be received licitly in both instances cited in this canon. “Licit” is synonymous with “lawful.” If the law permits it, it is lawful by definition. Of course, the Catholic widow should not do this by stealth but rather should be respectful of their norms just as they are of our norms.
Comparison are generally not black and white but in this case, based on all my years of studying Orthodoxy, I believe I can safely tell you that it’s the other way around: Orthodoxy is more restrictive than Catholicism, both in terms of not allowing members to receive communion in other churches and also in terms of priests not being allowed to give communion to non-members.He is much less free than his Orthodox counterpart who receives from a Catholic priest for sure,