The only way they condemn error is by omission.
Not in the original Nicene Creed, which anathematized Arianism. But Constantinople was wise to take those anathemas out. Error is indeed condemned best by the affirmation of the truth. The point is that (as you
yourself said earlier

), the Church defines doctrine in this way only in opposition to error. Normally, the truth is expressed through worship, through theological speculation, through works of charity, through all the many acts by which the Church lives.
The fact that you deny the apophatic nature of dogma is yet another piece of evidence that the Catholicism *you *believe and profess is quite different from the Catholicism of the early Church. Over and over you yourself unwittingly demonstrate the fact that the Orthodox have a stronger claim of continuity in so many areas. No wonder that you flee to absurd arguments about names and to obsessive prooftexting of a few passages from the Gospels.
Are you suggesting, as a wild flight of fancy, if the Orthodox and the Catholics agreed a fundamental point of doctrine has been omitted from either Creed, it should not be added?
It’s not a wild flight of fancy. It’s obvious fact. The Eucharist isn’t there.
What the Orthodox do is their own business.
Indeed. But it’s my business as an Anglican convinced that Anglicanism on its own cannot stand to discern which of your “businesses” is more like the “business” of the early Church. And this is one of a number of points where it seems to me that the Orthodox clearly have the advantage.
I don’t must do what you demand I must do. The filioque is found in the Anathasian Creed and the evidence is it predated the Council.
What evidence? Even the
Catholic Encyclopedia admits that it dates from the later fourth century at the earliest and is almost certainly not by Athanasius. The
view I’ve heard more often (and find more convincing) is that is probably at least a century later than the CE suggests, and that it shows the influence of Augustine.
It was probably an oversight, but I can’t prove that.
Not only can’t you prove it, but you haven’t given any reason why one should entertain such a speculation.
To justify your denial, you must disprove all the evidence provided to you.
So far, I’ve only had any work to do in this regard because I’ve taken on the burden of doing your research for you–a bad habit all around. You’ve made an unsubstantiated claim about the Council of Mar Ishaq, which I have shown to be most likely erroneous (since the later and presumptively more reliable edition of the acts of this Council uses the original “Creed of the 318 Fathers”). And you have followed this up with a vague and uninformed claim about the Athanasian Creed.
Not that I’m accountable to them, but absenting specifics, it’s absurd to ask me if I agree with these friends of mine who I’ve never met and whose opinions about subjects unknown to me I’m not aware of.
Fair enough–it’s just rather frustrating that one Catholic will take one approach which is convenient in one context, and another will take another quite different one which is equally convenient in a different context. Can you see why I’d like to know if you guys honestly disagree with each other, or if you have all fallen into the bad habit of just using whatever approach is convenient without regard for consistency?
Your claim does two things: it makes a theological presumption which is clearly above your pay grade
No, it doesn’t. It’s odd that you would say this, since most Catholic apologists seem to rely primarily on historical arguments about authenticity to make their case. If I, as a trained church historian, can’t possibly tell from history what the true Church is, then how exactly do you expect to go about persuading people?
Oh right–they’re supposed to be convinced by your prooftexting of Matt. 16. The fundamentalists are right in their methodology and wrong in their conclusions.

and it puts a crimp in your and the Orthodox concept of an almighty, all powerful, dictatorial, ham-fisted papacy whose every sneeze is Law.
Hardly, since even by later standards Leo III’s decision wouldn’t count as infallible. And if Brian Tierney is right, originally papal infallibility was conceived of as a limit on papal authority, precisely because it would prevent popes from overturning the decrees of other Popes. (I think Tierney is probably right about the late medieval situation, but is rather cavalier in some of his assumptions and insinuations about earlier views of the Church and the Papacy.) In other words, in the eleventh-century context papal absolutism was expressed precisely through the Pope’s ability to overturn even the decisions of his predecessors. In the 19th century, when authority was seen in more epistemological terms, papal infallibility appeared in a very different light.
Edwin