L
LaSalle
Guest
I’m in a discussion with a Protestant on their doctrine of once saved always saved and he pulled out 1 Cor 5:5 to show that the Christian man among them who was being sexually sinful would still be saved on the Day of the Lord once his body was “handed over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh”
How do you understand “handed over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh”?
How do you understand “handed over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh”?