M
Maryam
Guest
Hi everyone,
I was having a debate with a friend of mine who is an Orthodox Coptic Christian regarding the validity of the Apostolic succession in the Catholic Church.
I argued that why would Jesus make a point of stating that Peter is the rock on which he will build the church and that if this is not true and Peter is not the first Pope of the Catholic Church then Jesus would be contradicting himself…
My Coptic friend brought up these verses in which he pointed out that Paul admonished Peter’s behavior in acting hipocritically in at first eating with the Gentiles and then for fear of the Jews, only eating with the Jews…in Galatians 2:11-14
He then said that this shows that Paul was on equal standing with Peter in being able to admonish him for his behavior and that from Paul Christianity came to all the Gentiles, so that the claims of the Catholic Church to having the true Apostolic Succession is void.
At this point we were interrupted and so I looked in my RSV-CE bible later that night for these verses… I found (11)"And when Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face because he clearly was wrong. (12)For, until some people came from James, he used to eat with the Gentiles, but, separated himself, because he was afraid of the circumcised. (13)And the rest of the Jews also acted hipocritically along with him, with the result that even Barnabus was carried away by their hipocrisy.(14) But when I saw that they were not on the right road in line with truth of the gospel, I said to Cephas in front of all, “If you, though a Jew, are living like a Gentile and not like a Jew, how you can compel the Gentiles to live like Jews?”
But, in looking at the NKJV bible (the version my Coptic friend uses) I saw that in verse “11” instead of the name Cephas, it uses Peter: (11) Now, when Peter had come to Antioch, I withstood him to his face, because he was to be blamed,"
So, now I am confused as to how to respond to my friend the next time I see him because I know he will bring it up… If due to the use of older texts for bible translations in the NkJV as opposed to the RSV-CE bible in accounting for the use of Cephas instead of Peter in verse 11… Then how do I explain to my friend why in earlier verses of (Galatians 2:7-8) it speaks of Peter being in charge of preaching to the Circumcised (Jews) and that this admonishment by Paul regarding hipocrisy did not include Peter as well?
Because I know he will bring this up and say that how can it be that Peter was not part of those that Paul admonished regardless of the name of Cephas or Peter being used in verse 11?
I want to be prepared… Ok, I think I am done… Sorry I have written ALOT.
Please respond soon as I don’t want to be caught off-guard by my friend in not knowing how to respond.
THANKS!!!
God bless and Happy Easter!!
I was having a debate with a friend of mine who is an Orthodox Coptic Christian regarding the validity of the Apostolic succession in the Catholic Church.
I argued that why would Jesus make a point of stating that Peter is the rock on which he will build the church and that if this is not true and Peter is not the first Pope of the Catholic Church then Jesus would be contradicting himself…
My Coptic friend brought up these verses in which he pointed out that Paul admonished Peter’s behavior in acting hipocritically in at first eating with the Gentiles and then for fear of the Jews, only eating with the Jews…in Galatians 2:11-14
He then said that this shows that Paul was on equal standing with Peter in being able to admonish him for his behavior and that from Paul Christianity came to all the Gentiles, so that the claims of the Catholic Church to having the true Apostolic Succession is void.
At this point we were interrupted and so I looked in my RSV-CE bible later that night for these verses… I found (11)"And when Cephas came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face because he clearly was wrong. (12)For, until some people came from James, he used to eat with the Gentiles, but, separated himself, because he was afraid of the circumcised. (13)And the rest of the Jews also acted hipocritically along with him, with the result that even Barnabus was carried away by their hipocrisy.(14) But when I saw that they were not on the right road in line with truth of the gospel, I said to Cephas in front of all, “If you, though a Jew, are living like a Gentile and not like a Jew, how you can compel the Gentiles to live like Jews?”
But, in looking at the NKJV bible (the version my Coptic friend uses) I saw that in verse “11” instead of the name Cephas, it uses Peter: (11) Now, when Peter had come to Antioch, I withstood him to his face, because he was to be blamed,"
So, now I am confused as to how to respond to my friend the next time I see him because I know he will bring it up… If due to the use of older texts for bible translations in the NkJV as opposed to the RSV-CE bible in accounting for the use of Cephas instead of Peter in verse 11… Then how do I explain to my friend why in earlier verses of (Galatians 2:7-8) it speaks of Peter being in charge of preaching to the Circumcised (Jews) and that this admonishment by Paul regarding hipocrisy did not include Peter as well?
Because I know he will bring this up and say that how can it be that Peter was not part of those that Paul admonished regardless of the name of Cephas or Peter being used in verse 11?
I want to be prepared… Ok, I think I am done… Sorry I have written ALOT.
Please respond soon as I don’t want to be caught off-guard by my friend in not knowing how to respond.
THANKS!!!
God bless and Happy Easter!!